Skip to main content
28 votes
Accepted

Do *Mundi* and *Mundum* mean different things?

These are the exact same word, and yes both mean "world" but no you cannot substitute them for each other. Latin is a fully inflexional language, which means that the words have endings which change ...
cmw's user avatar
  • 55.3k
28 votes
Accepted

Meaning of "dies illa" from Dies Irae

This means "illa" definitely doesn't refer to "dies". But it does! The word dies can be feminine, and it is here. The feminine gender is rarer but it is the typical choice for a special day like an ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
20 votes
Accepted

What is the vocative of Gnaeus?

I searched for the vocative form Gnaee in several corpora but did not find any results. A general web search seems to reveal only automatically generated vocatives, which I would not lend much ...
brianpck's user avatar
  • 41.5k
19 votes

Why is suus in the accusative feminine singular in this sentence?

This is a really common stumbling block for those approaching Latin from the background of a language like English, so it merits a careful step-by-step explanation. I'll break my response into two ...
brianpck's user avatar
  • 41.5k
19 votes
Accepted

What is the significance of the different declensions and conjugations?

It's pretty much arbitrary. There are some standard patterns: first-declension nouns tend to be feminine, second-declension masculine/neuter, third-declension abstract concepts, fourth-declension ...
Draconis's user avatar
  • 67.6k
19 votes
Accepted

What are the relative frequencies of cases in Latin?

From the Perseus Database, the frequency of the cases is as follows: Nouns (19630): accusative 31.6% ablative 25.8% nominative 22.6% genitive 13.6% dative 4.6% vocative 1.2% locative 0.2% unknown 0....
Expedito Bipes's user avatar
19 votes
Accepted

Is "victurus" a future participle of "vivo" and "vinco"?

Sebastian Koppehel said the important bits but I want to provide some background for people who like that sort of thing (me). Don't let this confuse you if you don't find it helpful—it can be a lot ...
Cairnarvon's user avatar
  • 10.2k
18 votes
Accepted

Why is "tyrannis" in "sic semper tyrannis" interpreted as "to tyrants"?

This is not tyrannĭs, a form of tyrannis "tyranny", but tyrannīs, a form of tyrannus "tyrant". Without the macron, it could also be read as "thus always, o tyranny", but ...
Draconis's user avatar
  • 67.6k
16 votes
Accepted

Same ending of "Mediolanensis" in "Archiepiscopus Mediolanensis" and "Archidioecesis Mediolanensis"

There are two (main) classes of adjectives in Latin: Some adjectives use the first declension for feminines (e.g. Romana, "Roman") and the second declension for masculines and neuters (e.g. Romanus ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
16 votes

What is the difference between Iesus and Jesu?

The phrase you quote has words in the vocative case. Domine Fili unigenite Jesu Christe The vocative case is used for address. That is, O Lord, only begotten son, Jesus Christ The particle O ...
ktm5124's user avatar
  • 12k
16 votes

What declension is the name, Aeneas?

It is of the first declension, but not of the most typical kind. I would divide the first declension into four classes: Case (Feminine) A-type Masculine A-type Feminine E-type Masculine E-type ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
16 votes

Is "victurus" a future participle of "vivo" and "vinco"?

If you look up vivo and vinco in a dictionary, you will see that both have the same supine stem: victum. Thus they share not only the future participle, but also the two supines and the perfect ...
Sebastian Koppehel's user avatar
15 votes
Accepted

Why is Jesus inflected in such a way?

'Why' isn't usually a good question for these types of things, because the answer is often "just because." The Greek isn't typical, but it does have a parallel with o-contracted words like νοῦς, ...
cmw's user avatar
  • 55.3k
15 votes
Accepted

Did grammarians consider the adverbial -e a case ending?

In a recent paper (included in The Latin of the Grammarians), I have made the point that Latin grammarians, unlike their Greek predecessors, did not expressly stress the uninflectional nature of ...
Javier Uria's user avatar
15 votes
Accepted

Which Latin declension is most common?

According to this study, the distribution is as follows: 1st declension 21.6% 2nd declension 23.7% 3rd declension 52.6% 4th declension 1.4% 5th declension 0.7% ("Development of Gender ...
Expedito Bipes's user avatar
14 votes
Accepted

Remnants of the dual number

The -ī of vīgintī "20" is originally a dual ending, the same one as in frēnī (PIE *-ih₁). This is why the ending of vīgintī is different from that of the other tens (trīgintā etc.)
TKR's user avatar
  • 31.3k
14 votes

Do *Mundi* and *Mundum* mean different things?

The Latin word used for "world" here is mundus. This word has several forms (singular/plural): nominative: mundus/mundi accusative: mundum/mundos genitive: mundi/mundorum dative: mundo/mundis ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
14 votes

Is "Io" accusative case in "Iuppiter, rex deorum, pulchram Io amabat"?

A number of Greek names ending in -ō have both Latin and Greek style declensions. For example:   Greek Latin nom. Dīdō Dīdō acc. Dīdō Dīdōnem gen. Dīdūs Dīdōnis dat. Dīdō Dīdōnī abl. Dīdō Dīdōne ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
14 votes
Accepted

Are the cases in Latin always six?

Generally, most nouns and adjectives have six cases (nominative, genitive, dative, accusative, ablative, and vocative). However, this isn't always the case. Some words are defective, where they appear ...
cmw's user avatar
  • 55.3k
14 votes
Accepted

Is any word attested in both vocative and locative?

Corinthus City names regularly have locative forms (identical to the genitive singular), and it is not too rare for them to be addressed with a vocative, which takes the regular ending -e if the name ...
Asteroides's user avatar
  • 29.3k
13 votes
Accepted

What gender would "this" or "that" be in if there is no subject to describe?

To complete your example, it would be, Quid est hoc? What is this? Because "what" is neuter, whereas "who" could be masculine or feminine. The demonstratives (hic, ille, iste, ...
ktm5124's user avatar
  • 12k
13 votes

What is the difference between Iesus and Jesu?

Ancient Latin had no separate letter for the the vowel I and the consonant Y (J in German). They were both written as I. In Medieval Latin, though, a development took place that differentiated between ...
cmw's user avatar
  • 55.3k
13 votes

Meaning of "dies illa" from Dies Irae

It is the feminine nominative and refers to dies. It means “that day.” You do not say why you think you can definitely rule it out, but I guess you think dies is masculine, which is indeed the case. ...
Sebastian Koppehel's user avatar
13 votes
Accepted

Why is *dōna* the plural acc. Instead of *donos* like the rest of the 2nd declensions?

Dōnum is neuter; amīcus, fīlius, and ager are masculine. Neuter nouns are always the same in both the nominative and accusative case, in both singular and plural. See this question for more about how ...
Ben Kovitz's user avatar
  • 15.9k
13 votes
Accepted

Alternative methods of ordering declensions

It is not an ordering, but it is common in the context of historical linguistics or comparative Indo-European linguistics to categorize nouns by the ending element of the stem: first declension is ā-...
Asteroides's user avatar
  • 29.3k
13 votes

Is "Io" accusative case in "Iuppiter, rex deorum, pulchram Io amabat"?

For unfamiliar words, it never hurts to check the dictionary. Here is what Lewis and Short have: Īō, Iūs, and Īōn , Iōnis, f., = Ἰώ, I.a daughter of Inachus, king of Argos, beloved by Jupiter, and ...
cmw's user avatar
  • 55.3k
13 votes

Why is "O felicem virum, beatum Ioseph" in the accusative case here?

The vocative is used when addressing someone. The fact that it isn't used in the first part of this prayer makes me think that that portion is not meant to be addressed to Joseph (unlike the "Ora ...
Asteroides's user avatar
  • 29.3k
12 votes

Why does singular "mons" become plural "montes"?

Short answer: Latin does not allow the sequence ts (except in compound words), so an expected form like monts was remade into mons. Of course, this only leads to the further question of why this ...
TKR's user avatar
  • 31.3k
12 votes
Accepted

New testament Romans 2:8 - Why is nominative used instead of accusative like the previous verse?

Regarding why the Latin text uses the accusative and then the nominative, this is simply because the Vulgate is closely following the Greek original: 6 ὃς ἀποδώσει ἑκάστῳ κατὰ τὰ ἔργα αὐτοῦ· 7 τοῖς ...
brianpck's user avatar
  • 41.5k
12 votes

Do common nominative adjective endings also work with neuter nouns?

Maior and minor are what's called "two-termination" 3rd declension adjectives. This means that masculine and feminine take one form and neuter another. You'll be able to tell this by looking ...
cmw's user avatar
  • 55.3k

Only top scored, non community-wiki answers of a minimum length are eligible