15 votes

Translating "Nocte volat caelī mediō"

As an adjective, indeed, medius, -a, -um does not take a genitive. However, there is a noun, the substantive medium, -i, which also means "middle" or "midst." Referring to a ...
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Is "Jacob" genitive in "jubilate deo jacob"?

To add a little context to the current answer, the name "Jacob" in the New Testament has two distinct forms: Ἰάκωβος/Iacobus, which is declinable Ἰακώβ/Iacob, which is indeclinable Iacobus ...
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14 votes
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Why are descriptive subjects in the genitive?

See Allen and Greenough, §343.c: c. An infinitive or a clause, when used as a noun, is often limited by a genitive in the predicate. Neque suī iūdicī [erat] discernere. (B. C. 1.35) Nor was it for ...
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Expressing a possession relationship without the genitive?

A genitive would indicate a relationship of dependency or subordination between the genitive noun and the other noun. But the island is Sicily. There's no dependency; the two nouns are just different ...
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13 votes

Expressing a possession relationship without the genitive?

Based on the Latin text provided, Sicilia (“Sicily”) would be in apposition with insula (“island”), and both would be declined in the same case—in this case, nominative. Clara (“famous”) would be the ...
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12 votes

What is the difference between suus and eius?

All forms of se, including suus, normally refer to the subject of the main clause of the sentence. Eius, however, normally does not refer to this subject, but to someone else. So the two words have ...
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Where does the final -ς in genitive feminine singularis -ᾱς/-ης/τῆς come from?

It's the other way around, actually: Latin lost this -s, and Greek retained it! In older Latin, and fossilized phrases like pater familiās "father of the household", you see the genitive ...
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11 votes
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Use of the Genitive

Possessive is different from "owning." The master owns the house (presumably), but the house has a master. It possesses a master, but it doesn't "own" it. Ownership is a legal ...
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10 votes
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Genitive vs Ablative of Price

Roundly, the ablative is used for price and the genitive for value. The ablative of price occurs with verbs of acquiring, buying, selling etc., as in mensam quadraginta sestertiis emit. As well as ...
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10 votes

Is it grammatically correct to attributively use nominative forms of nouns in New Latin?

It's valid even in Classical Latin, in fact! Generally, it's fine to put two nouns together in the nominative (or, rather, in the same case) when one of them gives the general category of a thing and ...
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9 votes
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How to write a sentence with two genitives describing one noun

Your syntax is correct. You can combine as many genitives as you wish in a similar fashion. For choosing between et and -que, see the question about that choice. I think et is more appropriate here. ...
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9 votes
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Miserere mei! Miserere nostri! Why genitive?

First, this is not specific to ecclesiastical Latin. The same genitive is there in classical Latin as well. The verb miserere is used impersonally. It means roughly "to distress" or "to excite pity". ...
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9 votes

Forms of 2nd Declension Neuter Nouns ending in -ium

Here’s a summary of what most authoritative Latin grammars say on the genitive singular ending of –io stems (Weiss 2009/2011: 222-223; Leumann 1977: 424-425; Sihler ). For the sake of simplicity and ...
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9 votes

How common is the genitive plural ending -um in the first declension?

Leumann (p. 421) mentions two cases: spoken gen.pl. drachmum and amphorum; in dactylic poetry, four-syllable masculine nouns, besides the regular forms, could also have gen.pl. in -um, mostly ...
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9 votes

Plural genitive in 1st and 2nd declension - how were mixed genders treated?

As a general rule, groups containing both men and women take the masculine in Latin. For example, a male friend is an amīcus (masculine), and a female friend is an amīca (feminine). But a group of ...
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9 votes

Where does the final -ς in genitive feminine singularis -ᾱς/-ης/τῆς come from?

You have it backwards. The sigma is original. From Sihler 263.7: Gen.sg. PIE *-es, *-os, *-s are all attested forms of the gen.sg. marker and all three would yield much the same results in the ...
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8 votes

Expressing a possession relationship without the genitive?

You are correct. In this case, the "of" is simply an English idiom. "The island of Sicily" and "the island Sicily" and even "Sicily the island" are all different ways to get the same meaning; the ...
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How to work around the missing cases of vis?

Singular genitive and dative forms of vis exist but are very rare, according to the Gaffiot, which provides some examples: Or in Calonghi: So it may be possible to use those forms when needed (vis ...
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8 votes

Forms of 2nd Declension Neuter Nouns ending in -ium

Edgar H. Sturtevant's dissertation "Contraction in the case forms of the Latin io- and ia stems, and of deus, is, and idem" (1902) seems to have some relevant info, although I don't know if ...
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Ambiguitas casus genitivi?

Grammatically it should be the first—homo and intraturus enclose mundi, and therefore the genitive belongs to them. This is a very common way of showing relationships between dependent words. However, ...
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8 votes

Ambiguitas casus genitivi?

The second translation is indeed superior. This is mostly based on context: theatrum mundi makes more sense than homo mundi. Judging by word order alone suggests that mundi modifies homo, so word ...
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8 votes
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Unnecessary genitive being used with 'suum'

You are confusing gĕnu, -ūs ("knee") and gĕnus, -ĕris ("origin, lineage, stock"). The latter is a 3rd declension neuter noun, so the accusative singular is the same as the nominative singular. Hence,...
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8 votes
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Mors mea or mors meī?

Another use of the genitive that you've left out is subjective genitive, which is what this is. These are discussed in, e.g., Gildersleeve and Lodge, Latin grammar §363. Allen and Greenough, New Latin ...
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8 votes

Is "Jacob" genitive in "jubilate deo jacob"?

The name Jacob not a Latin or Greek name and it is not clear how one should decline it to other cases like the genitive. The choice made with many biblical names that do not fit pre-existing patterns ...
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8 votes

Is it grammatically correct to attributively use nominative forms of nouns in New Latin?

Adding to Cerberus's answer, an "attributive noun" is not the same thing as an appositive noun/apposition. Latin has apposition; it does not have attributive nouns. An attributive noun would ...
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What is the syntax of ‘quamquam omnis secrētī capācissima’?

Omnis secreti is genitive with capax, which means 'most capable of holding' (OLD definition 2). Although capax is generally used in this sense to describe objects, it's being used to describe a person ...
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7 votes
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How to form the plural of "noun plus noun in possessive case"?

Since you mention "curriculum vitae", I assume you're focusing on metaphorical rather than physical uses, and on a name for something (rather than using it in a sentence)? When talking about ideas ...
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7 votes

Is -um (instead of -ōrum) a typical genitive plural ending outside of poetry?

I believe it is also used in prose with certain words, like deum and virum, although it is indeed less common. Livius, Ab Urbe Condita V 14.4: ... pestilentiam agris urbique [esse] inlatam haud ...
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7 votes

What are the normal genitive and dative singular forms of "alius"?

Bennett gives gen. alterius, dat. aliī. Allen and Greenough list alius among the adjectives that "have the Genitive Singular in -īus and the Dative in -ī in all genders", implying alīus, aliī, but add ...
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7 votes

Using "ad" vs. dative

Writing a letter to someone does fit the description you mentioned. It has to travel physically to the recipient. Famous collections of letters usually use ad in their titles. We might understand this ...
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