I have another entry for this exhibit that answers your question with a resounding yes.
Enter Plautus, in the Menaechmi, with three verbs derived from proper names in his prologue:
Atque hoc poetae faciunt in comoediis:
omnis res gestas esse Athenis autumant,
quo illud vobis graecum videatur magis;
ego nusquam dicam nisi ubi factum dicitur.
I searched for the vocative form Gnaee in several corpora but did not find any results. A general web search seems to reveal only automatically generated vocatives, which I would not lend much credence to, as well as the excellent 16th century example cited by @JoelDerfner in Juan Luis Vives's De Initiis Sectis Et Laudibus Philosophiae. The two alternatives ...
The phrase you quote has words in the vocative case.
Domine Fili unigenite Jesu Christe
The vocative case is used for address. That is,
O Lord, only begotten son, Jesus Christ
The particle O underscores this fact, that the phrase is in the form of address.
On the other hand, Iesus is in the nominative case. The nominative case is used for the subject of ...
'Why' isn't usually a good question for these types of things, because the answer is often "just because." The Greek isn't typical, but it does have a parallel with o-contracted words like νοῦς, περίπλους, or (neuter) κανοῦν.
Nominative Ἰησοῦς νοῦς
Genitive Ἰησοῦ νοῦ
Dative Ἰησοῖ/Ἰησοῦ νῷ
Accusative Ἰησοῦν νοῦν
N.N. is still used in Spanish and some other languages. It comes from nomen nescio. Although it is not a name, it is actually used as if it were.
Also, according to this, Numerius Negidius was used "in jurisprudence in ancient Rome (...) specifically to refer to the defendant in a hypothetical lawsuit", and was an intentional wordplay to fit N.N.
See also: ...
Ancient Latin had no separate letter for the the vowel I and the consonant Y (J in German). They were both written as I. In Medieval Latin, though, a development took place that differentiated between the vowel I (written as I, i) and the consonant I (now written as J, j).
There is no difference, then, between Iesus and Jesus in Latin.
Jesu/Iesu, though, ...
It came to Latin from Hebrew (שָּׂטָן satan), through Greek (Σατανᾶς satanas) and means enemy, adversary.
In Judaism and Christianity, it is also one of the names given to the devil, a supernatural creature that lead a rebelion against God and one of the main instigators of evil in the World.
The -as ending is purely grammatical. As can be seen, it was ...
I see two approaches here: the literal and the historical one.
From a semantic point of view, your choice of words is mainly right, but as Joonas points, orbis means primarily something round, and its assocaition (and meaning change into European languages) with the whole World derives from the fact that its use with terrarum and terrae (the roundness of ...
It is of the first declension, but not of the most typical kind.
I would divide the first declension into four classes:
NOM -a -ās -ē -ēs
ACC -am -am/-ān -ēn -ēn
GEN -ae -ae -ēs -ae
DAT -ae -ae -ae -ae
ABL -ā -ā -ē -ē
VOC -a -ā -ē -ē
The last three classes are reserved (almost completely) for Greek names....
The entry for Anna in Wiktionary certainly states that it derives from the Hebrew Hannah. And this is how Augustine uses it in The City of God against the Pagans, in book 17, when referring to Hannah, the mother of Samuel (mater quoque ipsa Samuelis Anna ...)
However, there is the possibility that Anna is in fact a Latin name, based on the Roman goddess ...
The consistency of Greek spelling tends to hide the sound changes that happened within the language. Greek originally(*) had three different "o-like" sounds, written ο, ω, ου. Since they had only two "o-like" letters, they needed to use two letters together for the third one. The same thing happened with their three "e-like" sounds, ε, η, ει.
It's thought ...
Plural place names should have plural verbs. A very simple case of this is Athenae, -arum (Athens). Here's an illuminating example from Cicero:
in quam cum intueor, maxime mihi occurrunt, Attice, et quasi lucent Athenae tuae, qua in urbe primum se orator extulit primumque etiam monumentis et litteris oratio est coepta mandari. (Cicero, Brutus 7)
The other answers are great, but let me try to show it in a slightly different way. In Latin, the word Jesus or Iesus (more on that later) has several different forms, as shown in a declension table like this one, reproduced below:
It seems there are two possible etymologies for the Occitan name Aloys, whose Latinisation gave rise to the form Aloysius:
cognate with German Ludwig, from Germanic (Frankish) name, a compound of (h)lūt ("fame") + wīg ("warrior").
cognate with German Alwis, from Old High German al (...
Eureka, as the scientist said. J. L. Vives, 16th century humanist, uses the vocative of Gnæus Pompeius in Pompeius Fugiens (page 136 of the Brill edition of his early writings, volume I). Brill spells it Gnæe, but the notes seem to indicate that one ms spells it Gnee and three others spell it Cnee.
I agree with Joonas Ilmavirta's answer in that you want to use tellus or terra along with mater. But I am not sure which word order is more idiomatic in Latin. (It's true Latin word order is relatively "free," but there are still tendencies towards using certain orders in set phrases.)
A corpus search of "Classical Latin Texts" (prepared bt The Packard ...
The relevant entry in Smith's Copious & Critical English-Latin reads "gipsy: Cingarus, Zingarus, f. -a :after their Italian name Zingari, The Gipsies, *Aegypti qui feruntur."
That seems quite acceptable to me. However, since there is no classical precedent, I should think that you can please yourself on this. My own preferred word is gitanus, which in a ...
Stephen Wilson's The Means of Naming provides insight into the naming of Roman public slaves. His discussion touches on the sources of personal names and names of slaves owned privately, but also includes treatment of the naming of the servus publicus.
First, he notes that the phrase servus publicus, or part of it, was often part of their name:
Why do so many forms of this name exist?
While modern usage prefers to translate names to an original or etymological form, it was once a more common practice to Latinize names with little change other than moving it into a declension. Thus, many forms of the name exist because the name is found in many forms across the languages of Europe. (This in turn ...
The name Parthenope originally refers to a Siren who killed herself after failing to attract Odysseus/Ulysses and his men with her songs. She threw herself into the sea and drowned, and her body washed ashore (see The Roman Paratext: Frame, Texts, Readers).
The locals who settled in the area where her body washed ashore, the Cumaeans, decided to name their ...
I actually just spent a week with a bunch of living Latinists one of whom was named Faber, so I can say that with context there's no question.
However, "Faber" was not at all a Roman name, and I sort of feel like if you were transported back in time and said this, it would be like introducing yourself today to somebody as Ablacksmith. "Hi, I'm Ablacksmith." ...
Chantraîne suggests (tentatively, but with references) that it might be a hypocoristic of Ναυσικάστη.
Robert Graves’s “Greek myths” is a work of imaginative literature. The etymologies proposed there need to be taken with a very large pinch of salt.
What you have written is grammatically correct and there is no conflict. The subject of dicit is nomen and of continet is prima (provincia). Your actual question doesn't cover your example, but your request is perfectly clear.
There are two kinds of plural noun. Some, such as hiberna (winter quarters), moenia (town walls) and tenebrae (darkness) are only ...
Many European last names have some kind of "of" in them, like the "des" of Descartes.
In Latin this is most naturally expressed with a derivative.
This goes with many kinds of titles with an "of"; for example, I would translate "Caesar of Rome" as Caesar Romanus.
As Alex B. comments under another answer, de Montaigne ("of mountain") was Latinized as ...
Latin proper names certainly can be declined in the third declension, like the common noun rēx, rēgis
First, a small note on terminology: the noun rēx "king" is not generally considered to decline irregularly. Latin has several declension classes for nouns; I think you most likely are considering a noun to be regular if it belongs to the first or ...
There are various epigraphical references of Numidius as a nomen:
CIL VIII 23074 (Ain Batria): Aurelius Numidius Pnsi
CIL X 3824 (Capua): Cn(aeum) Numidium / Astragalum
CIL XIV 3627 (Tivoli): C(aius) Numidius Qua/dratus
ILCV 297 (Santa Maria Capua Vetere): Murrius / Numidius
PanDeser 64 (Berenice): C(aius) Numidius Eros
In CIL ...
It seems that the Latin form Aloysius is based specifically on an Occitan form of the name, Aloys. The Latin has simply retained the Occitan spelling; I don't know enough about Occitan to say anything about that spelling, or about the strange initial A-.
It's more accurate to ask why the Δ changes to Ζ than vice versa. Historically Ζεύς comes from a pre-Greek form *Dyeus, and just like in English we sometimes hear a "dy" combination merge into a "j" sound (i.e., [dj]) -> [dʒ]), the same thing happened in Greek, so that the initial consonant was originally pronounced something like [dʒ] (with subsequent ...
In the idealized system of the tria nomina, the form it had around the end of the Republic and the start of the Empire, the nomen indicated what clan (gens) someone belonged to. It was the most important part of the name, since it tied them into a larger family.
The man who would later be known as Augustus was born into the fairly obscure and unimportant ...