New answers tagged

21 votes

Both "fēmina" and "mulier" mean "woman": what's the difference?

In Republican and early Imperial Latin, mulier was more common, and fēmina was more markedly respectful Although it might seem surprising to speakers of modern languages where using the word "...
  • 24.1k
5 votes

"Semitic languages" in Classical Latin

As pointed out, the Romans did not have a concept of language families as we understand them today. They did however have a concept of some peoples speaking languages that were similar to or "the ...
  • 373
16 votes

"Semitic languages" in Classical Latin

While fdb is absolutely correct that the ancient Romans had no conception of language families, we can come up with a plausible calque—a literal translation of each component of a word or phrase. ...
  • 56.5k
6 votes

"Semitic languages" in Classical Latin

The ancient Romans had no concept of language families, nor of Semites (the supposed descendants of Noah’s son Shem). There is consequently no word for “Semitic languages” in Classical Latin.
  • 16.5k

Top 50 recent answers are included