New answers tagged classical-latin
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The Roman aqueduct is considered one of the greatest inventions of the ancient world. Commenting on this technology, Cicero had the following to say:
Adde ductus aquarum, derivationes fluminum, agrorum irrigationes,
moles oppositas fluctibus, portus manu factos, quae unde sine hominum
opere habere possemus? Ex quibus multisque aliis perspicuum est, ...
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The expression in faciem expresses the idea of "man to man" or "face to face", but to emphasize doing so in a manly way, I would use the expression ut vir (or sicut vir), which means "like a man". This phrase can be use with an appropriate verb such as resistere (to resist) or contendere (to contend).
Cicero for example wrote the following:
Ita et tulit ...
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In addition to Mitomino's excellent answer, I would just like to note that partitive use of adjectives exists in English too and is no less ambiguous than in Latin.
OK, we do not say “the top mountain” in English. But we do say:
the southern United States (really: the southern part)
the late twentieth century (really: the late part)
the lowest ebb (really: ...
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Carolus Egger's 1977 opus Lexicon Nominum Locorum gives a fairly exhaustive list of country names, as well as notable city, territory, state, and region names. No macrons, but it does specify the stressed syllable. It also has demonyms and adjectives.
It's a bit dated, but I highly recommend it. It has some real gems in there: Horti Nationales ...
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I'm afraid I don't have good news for you. In Latin one can only use meaning & context to know if the adjective/participle is used "dominantly" (NB: for a relevant terminological remark, please see TKR's comment above). Note that your first example is ambiguous between a predicative/"dominant" reading ('the highest point of heaven') and an attributive ...
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This is a very useful tool: "A Latin Macronizer" at http://alatius.com/macronizer.
It automatically adds macrons to any Latin text, while highlighting ambiguous or unknown words, which you will have to check yourself. It mostly does a very good job, and saves a lot of time.
Its author Johan Winge writes: "The expected accuracy on an average classical text ...
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Possible examples:
carcero, carcerare. Lewis and Short has an entry defining it as follows:
to imprison, incarcerate (post-class.), Salv. Prov. 2, p. 53; Auct. Prog. Aug. 29.
Pretty clearly based on the location noun carcer, and the entry seems to clearly define it as a location verb. I haven't examined the citations.
corono, coronare. Lewis and Short ...
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The selenographical names can perhaps be viewed as appositions and would as such not be ungrammatical (Latin appositions may be incongruent in number or gender, like urbs Athenae). In that case both parts would have to be declined in parallel, e.g. Videsne Montes Agricolam? In my opinion one should take this as scientific terminology based on Latin, not ...
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Attention, all my sources are post-Classical. Thus they do not entirely fit the question but I think they are very useful for the concept itself.
This is what I attested so far skimming these books:
https://books.google.com.br/books?id=BtlDAAAAcAAJ&pg=PA80 - I found here up to produovicatavus, but there could be more.
https://books.google.com.br/...
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Do not only look for “movement” when you see in used with the accusative. In is very versatile and has a lot of meanings that cannot be easily summed up in a few words. A good dictionary will describe them, such as Lewis & Short. Under “II. With acc.” look past letters A (“In space”) and B (“In time”) for C:
In other relations, in which an aiming at, ...
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The noun instar in the ablative case with a genitive object can be used almost exactly like the English preposition "like". See here.
The biggest difference between "like" and instar is that "like" is extremely common in English, but instar is not nearly so common in Latin. So use instar, but don't overdo it. :)
Instar canis, like a dog.
Instar fori, like ...
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(Looking over the other answers that have been submitted, I see that most of this has already been covered there. Still, there may be some value here, since I've included attestations.)
1. The man is like a dog.
For a simple statement of similarity, of the sort 'x is like y,' I think the best approach is to use the adjective similis + dative, as in Pliny ...
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If you check the example sentences at Glosbe (https://glosbe.com/en/la/such%20as and https://glosbe.com/en/la/like) it seems that you could use any of the following for 'like' in the sense of equivalence or similarity: ut, uti, sicut, sicuti, velut, veluti, quasi (and I'd add tony's suggestion tamquam), all with the nominative, or similis with the dative. So ...
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Try of "tamquam" (adverb) = "just as"; "just as if" (Pock. Ox. Lat. Dict.).
After reading about the murder of Rome's last great general, Flavius Aetius (he checked the advance of Atilla, for example), by feckless Emperor, Valentinian III, in 454, I found the response of Appolinarus who said to Valentinian: "Caeser, I know not your motivations or ...
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No, that translation is not grammatically valid.
It means roughly "belief of law, long use, to be saved firmly" but it is somewhat incoherent.
Let me go through a translation process step by step.
As you seem to know, opinio iuris is a fixed expression and we can of course start with that.
The modifiers will probably not be parts of standard legal Latin ...
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You asked about classical usage where a Greek 2nd declension noun is modified by a Latin 2nd declension adjective. I seem to stumble across such examples in ecclesiastical Latin, but I haven't seen examples from Classical myself. So I went looking in Lewis and Short, and examples are hard to come by.
Here's what I've found.
Under arctos I found domitās ...
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Latin American here.
As mentioned in the other answers, the Americas were colonized basically by the British, Spanish, and Portuguese (and to a lesser extent by the French and Dutch). All the French colonies in North America later fell under British rule.
Now, the term comes handy when referring to a clear cut subset of the Americas (the former Spanish and ...
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But doesn't English and French and German and Italian and basically everything in Europe come from Latin as well?
Not in the same way!
Essentially all European languages have borrowed a lot of vocabulary from Latin.
But for some languages the relation is much more intimate:
The so-called Romance languages evolved directly from Latin.
They were not only ...
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Welcome to the Latin SE! Latin was not just a language - it also referred to a specific group of people who lived on the Italic peninsula before the Roman Empire or Republic. After the rise of Rome, it also applied to the people who lived in Iberia (modern day Spain and Portugal). The name stuck there, and it traveled across the Atlantic and continued to ...
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