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15

Yes, there are exceptions, but fortunately not very many. Allen & Greenough has a short summary at §12.a, which I'll discuss here. The first common exception you'll come across is a word with an enclitic (-que, -ve, -ne). With these, the accent always falls on the penult of the new word, so, using an example from Allen and Greenough, the accent for ...


13

Imho the most comprehensive treatment of Latin accent (beautifully defined as "anima vocis" by some Roman grammarians) is Leumann, Hofmann, and Szantyr 1977, Lateinische Grammatik. Band I. Lateinische Laut- und Formenlehre. (para 235-246, Betonung und Akzent). Caveat: It is in German. There is some evidence that even Roman grammarians admitted struggling ...


11

This seems to be a mystery. I haven't found any good explanation yet; I don't know if this is because the subject has been neglected so far, or if it's because the very occurrence of the phenomenon is still controversial and so nobody has attempted to give an explanation for it. The idea that Latin adverbs (and certain other words) were stressed or ...


9

An important note about my sources: A question has been raised by another user re: sources in my answer. Anyone can easily check the accuracy of my statements and sources. Dr. Stotz is an expert in Medieval Philology (i.e. post-Classical Latin); he is a professional linguist. Obviously, he has provided necessary bibliography about all the sources in his ...


9

I'll just add one class to what C. M. Weimer says in his excellent answer, which is shortened fourth-conjugation first-person singular perfects. Dormiī, audiī, veniī, and the like are all stressed on a short penultimate syllable, even though it's short. Like some of the other exceptions, this stress was regular before a letter disappeared; they come from ...


8

A colleague asked me about this a while ago. I agree with that colleague and with you that to native speakers of Dutch it would be absurd (or at least ridiculous) to stress the antepenult. As for standard rules of stress, it seems to me that it's a bit hard to know (a) which vowels are long or short here and (b) to what extent such rules apply in, let's say, ...


7

Greek stress could be used in the medieval period. Per An Introduction to the Study of Medieval Latin Versification, by Dag Norberg, translated by Grant C. Roti and Jacqueline de La Chappelle Skulby: in the versification of the Middle Ages [...] the Greek accentuation since the end of antiquity had in a certain number of cases supplanted the Latin ...


7

Pronunciation Below you can see the vowel lengths marked by L&S and by OLD. Note that OLD doesn't cover post-Classical vocabulary. (In this table L&S = the online L&S via Perseus; OLD = the 1st edition of the OLD consulted by hand; Gaffiot = the 2016 online edition via Logeion.uchicago.edu.) Vowel in penultimate syllable |---------------------|--...


6

It seems that Saint Augustine in your quote is describing the same phenomenon that we can see consistently marked in later Latin. While trying to read Marracci's 'Refutatio Alcorani' (https://books.google.nl/books?id=ye40VChDL6gC and https://archive.org/details/bub_gb_-KZEAAAAcAAJ), I noticed that certain words were written with an accent grave on the vowel ...


6

W. Sidney Allen in Vox Latina says that various grammarians such as Quintilian stated the rules quite unambiguously (although he also writes that "there is some controversy about the nature of the historical accent"). However, even if we didn't have precise statements from ancient grammarians, the rules could pretty easily deduced simply from the reflexes ...


5

I think of hiatus vowel shortening in Latin as a historical rule. Some linguistic analyses might treat it as a synchronically active morphophonological rule in certain contexts, like the conjugation of regular fourth-declension verbs (where we can explain the variation between long i and short i in different forms if there is a single underlying base with ...


4

You're right that such gemination is not correct Classical pronunciation, and I believe the answer to your question whether it occurred in post-Classical Latin/Romance is no. Italian amata does not, at least in standard pronunciation, have a geminate; phonetically it's [ama:ta], versus e.g. matta [mat:a] with a geminate t. To the best of my knowledge, there ...


4

By the third century BCE… …probably. We're not quite sure when. In a question about Old Latin meters, an anonymous user brought up Mercado's convincing argument that the Saturnian was based on accent. The idea isn't new, but Mercado backs it up with some nice information-theoretical analysis: basically, the accent theory passes some statistical tests that ...


4

The first thing to check is vowel lengths. L&S indicates that all vowels in presbyter and presbyteri are short apart from the genitive ending -i. In presbyter the second last syllable by is light (also known as short) as it is open and has a short vowel. Therefore the stress falls on the third last syllable. In the other forms the second last syllable is ...


4

We don't exactly know. In Greek, we have a pretty good idea of how the accent worked: it involved a change in pitch, which was supposedly close to the interval of a fifth (as the grammarian Dionysius laid out the accent system quite precisely in musical terms). In Latin, however, it's much less clear. Some of the grammarians talk about it, but never in clear ...


4

-very brief and disorganized notes (not a full answer), maybe someone else will be willing to write a more coherent answer- Weiss 2020: 527 "Primary stress on the initial syllable is inferred on the basis of the syncope that affects medial syllables" also see Lindsay 1894 pp. 157-160 (e.g. word-initial stress in facilius and mulierem in the plays ...


4

As far as I can tell, there are no classical precedents for the specific form of the ending -oideus. It ultimately comes from Ancient Greek -οειδής, an ending found mostly on third-declension adjectives with the meaning "-shaped" or "-like". These adjectives are compounds containing the linking vowel -ο- followed by the element εἶδος &...


3

Weiss's Outline of the Historical and Comaprative Grammar of Latin, p. 112, gives some examples of exactly this phenomenon: Philippus (Gk. Φίλιππος) scans in Old Latin verse as if its second syllable is light; this can be explained by "iambic shortening", in which an unstressed syllable following a light syllable can scan as light itself. This ...


3

What do historical grammars of Latin usually say on this? Usually such exceptions do not get enough treatment in historical grammars of Latin, e.g. “Bei den klassischen Messungen wie āēr, Aenēās usw. ist auf die griechische Quantität Rücksicht genommen, vgl. noch Niedermann3 85.” (Pfister and Sommer 1977, p. 103, Anm. 2) “Bei den in der klassischen Zeit ...


3

If the underlying Celtic form was in fact Eburākon, then one would expect it to have been borrowed into Latin with a long ā and hence pronounced with the accent on the paenultima.


3

I cannot agree with your statement that “vowel length seems to have been lost very early” in Latin. Latin long and short vowels develop differently in the daughter languages. For example Latin short e becomes e in French, but long ē regularly becomes oi (as in habēre > avoir). It is probably true that the distinction was neutralised in the reading aloud of ...


3

I think you're mistaken when you say "certain sound changes in the Romance languages, like posttonic vowel syncope ..., still rely on the penult stress rules". There are two separate processes involved: the loss of phonemic vowel quantity, and the syncope based on accentuation patterns. Once vowel quantity ceases to be phonemic, the "penult rule" ceases to ...


3

As you mentioned, it is very difficult to say anything clear about stress in Classical Latin, because there is little evidence, either direct or indirect, of the position of the stress. As Joonas Ilmavirta and Alex B. pointed out in the comments, there was supposedly a special rule in Latin about stressing the immediately preceding syllable, regardless of ...


3

There are various practical systems of pronunciation — in the UK we find the versions of Oxford, of Westminster School, the Roman Catholic Church and so on. As far as I know, none is really considered a reliable guide to that used in ancient Rome. Various scholarly books written on the subject (as well as others more fanciful and speculative), even where ...


3

I don't know exactly why you have heard pronunciations of Italian amata with a long /tː/, but I would guess this is just a case of different speakers using different phonetic durations for phonemically singleton consonants. The exact realization of gemination is not the same in all languages/language varieties, so some Italian speakers may use something that ...


3

I've never seen Latin set like this, by French composers or others: Couperin, Charpentier, Lully, Fauré, Duruflé, Poulenc—they all set their Latin so that it follows the stress pattern we all know and love. Fauré (1845-1924) overlapped Adam, so I doubt pronunciation changed radically between the two. I think this is just a case, unfortunately, of bad text-...


3

I'm doubtful that the diaeresis would be used in this way: you can't generally break diphthongs into two short vowels metri causa. There are occasional examples in Homer of disyllabic scansion of what in Classical Greek terms would be a diphthong, e.g. ἐύ for εὖ, but those are archaisms, not applications of a productive rule. That said, the accentuation ...


2

The Arch poet (c1130-1167) wrote a mock confession to his patron, Archbishop, and Arch-Chancellor to Barbarossa. Because his verse here written in stressed trochaics, Odds are stressed and Evens unstressed (except for the last syllable before the double bar-line) In these 3 examples distinct prepositions(Bold) are all stressed, but prepositional prefixes(...


2

I don't know of any obvious or systematic effects that Classical Latin stress had on sound changes. The non-obvious effects that I've seen proposed for Classical Latin stress are "brevis brevians" or "iambic shortening" and syncope of vowels. Language and Rhythm in Plautus: Synchronic and Diachronic Studies, by Benjamin W. Fortson IV (2008), says that ...


2

I'm not completely sure that I've understood your question, but I'll make a stab at it anyway. How does Classical Latin accent affect the modern Romance languages? Well. here's a start. Words of the form (C)VCVCV(C) with an accent of the antepenult tended to eliminate the medial unstressed vowel to become (C)VCCV(C). Examples are: (from homo) homine(m) -...


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