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15

Yes, there are exceptions, but fortunately not very many. Allen & Greenough has a short summary at §12.a, which I'll discuss here. The first common exception you'll come across is a word with an enclitic (-que, -ve, -ne). With these, the accent always falls on the penult of the new word, so, using an example from Allen and Greenough, the accent for ...


13

Imho the most comprehensive treatment of Latin accent (beautifully defined as "anima vocis" by some Roman grammarians) is Leumann, Hofmann, and Szantyr 1977, Lateinische Grammatik. Band I. Lateinische Laut- und Formenlehre. (para 235-246, Betonung und Akzent). Caveat: It is in German. There is some evidence that even Roman grammarians admitted struggling ...


12

I wasn't able to find out why this word, or name, has a smooth breathing. As you may have seen already, LSJ actually has separate entries for "Raros", a name, and "raros", the "embryo" word that TKR's answer deals with. It's unclear to me if these have the same origin. LSJ seems to have a bit more information and examples of words related to the name in ...


12

Good question! In the beginning, way back in the far-flung times of Proto-Indo-European, the word for "it is" was something like *h₁ésti, and it had a fairly regular present participle, *h₁sónts. In Latin, these forms evolved into est and sōns, respectively (vowels get lengthened before -ns). The latter is where we get forms like absēns > "absent" and ...


11

This is a different verb: not salveō, salvēre (2nd conjugation), but salvō, salvāre (1st conjugation), a late Latin word meaning 'to save.' salvo , āvi, ātum, 1, v. a. salvus, I. to save (late Lat.; opp. perdere; "syn.: servo, conservo)," Veg. Vet. 3, 23, 3; Lact. de Ira Dei, 5, 7; Hier. Ep. 20, 4; Vulg. Isa. 4, 2; id. Amos, 2, 14; Sedul. 1, 109. (...


10

The story, as often, has to do with Proto-Indo-European laryngeals. Both these verbs had a laryngeal as the last consonant of the root: *deh₃-, *steh₂-. All the forms in Latin are based on the zero grade of these roots (i.e. the form without a vowel): *dh₃-, *sth₂-. Now, when a PIE laryngeal found itself between two consonants, in Latin the result was the ...


10

I don't have a solution to the mystery of the breathing, but to unpack the LSJ entry a little: The word is only found in grammatical works, and these differ as to its meaning: EM is the Etymologicum magnum, a 12th-century Byzantine lexicon/encyclopedia. This is online, and the entry can be seen here. It says that some people think ῤάρος is the name of a ...


9

Varro mentions the possibility: De Lingua Latina 9.75.4ff. obliquos non habere ut in hoc Diespiter Diespitri Diespitrem, Maspiter Maspitri Maspitrem. ad haec respondeo et priora habere nominandi et posteriora patrici esset casus. ut ovis, et avis. sic in obliquis casibus cur negent esse Diespitri Diespitrem non video, nisi quod minus est tritum in ...


9

Greek Declension As a first note, I think it would be helpful to understand the morphology of these third-declension neuter nouns in -ma as they appear in Greek: Singular Plural Nominative ὄνομᾰ ὀνόμᾰτᾰ Genitive ὀνόμᾰτος ὀνομάτων Dative ὀνόμᾰτῐ ὀνομάσῐ(ν) Accusative ...


8

I'll just add one class to what C. M. Weimer says in his excellent answer, which is shortened fourth-conjugation first-person singular perfects. Dormiī, audiī, veniī, and the like are all stressed on a short penultimate syllable, even though it's short. Like some of the other exceptions, this stress was regular before a letter disappeared; they come from ...


8

Let me mention some things to complement your and TKR's lists. First, the adjectives iuvenis and senex have the irregular comparatives iunior and senior. These comparatives are rarely (if ever) used in neuter. Neither adjective has a superlative. For senex, the superlative can be replaced by that of vetustus (vetustissimus). For vetus, comparatives and ...


8

Allen and Greenough list three more, but they are rare: nequam, nequior, nequissimus "worthless" frugi, frugalior, frugalissimus "useful" dexter, dexterior, dextimus "on the right, handy"


7

There are no passive forms of esse, for the reason you state -- it's not a transitive verb. Intransitive verbs cannot be passivized, with the minor exception of "impersonal passive" forms (in the 3sg. only), which are not used with esse. The crossed-out forms on that site don't exist. (Neither do some of the forms that aren't crossed out, like the gerundive ...


7

I have searched the entire Loeb Classical Library, Bibliotheca Teubneriana Latina and Keil's Corpus Grammaticorum Latinorum. Believe me, this is quite representative. No, such forms are not attested and the only extremely rare occurrences are three grammarians, Varro, Priscian, aka Priscianus Caesariensis (5-6th centuries AD) and Pompeius (Maurus) (5th ...


6

Some thoughts and notes so far. This seems to be the only exception - which means it would most likely require an exceptional, ad hoc explanation. Different sources trace back to the Greek grammarian Aelius Herodianus (2th century AD), the author of a most unusual compendium of exceptions Περὶ μονήρους λέξεως; see the following passage from A Companion ...


6

As @cnread's comment indicates, the geminate t of rettuli is thought to be a remnant of Indo-European perfect reduplication. The Proto-Indo-European perfect tense was formed with reduplication of the first consonant of the root; a few Latin perfects still do this, e.g. cecidi, peperi, cucurri. Rettuli would then come from an older form re-tetuli; the short ...


6

I haven't been able to find any solid information on the etymology of the Latin infinitive, which is frustrating. I'm sure it's out there, so this will be only a partial answer (containing a decent helping of speculation) for now. But one thing seems fairly clear: PIE didn't have an infinitive per se. Different language groups developed it independently ...


6

I agree with the emphasis on morphology in the comments and in user786's answer. The Greek second-declension terminations -ον, -ος are etymologically and morphologically equivalent to the Latin second-declension terminations -um, -us, which surely contributed greatly to their interchange in loaned words. However, I wanted to post about some phonetic and ...


5

In linguistic parlance these verbs are usually called “stative”, not “passive”. From a Latin standpoint they differ from passive verbs in that they cannot (apparently) be construed with an agent (Latin ab + ablative). Ancient Indo-European is believed to have had an active and a middle voice, but no passive. But it did have the facility to form stative ...


5

To supplement Tom Cotton's answer— There's one other verb which similarly shortens its imperative: ferō, ferre, tulī, lātus, imperative fer, ferte. Compounds always use the shortened/apocopated form (adfer/adferte, offer/offerte etc), with *adfere / *adferete, *offere / *offerete etc entirely absent from the PHI corpus. So these two seem relatively certain:...


5

Generally, verbs of mixed 3rd/4th conjugation and their compounds (inf. -ere, 1st. pres. sing. in -io) all follow the same pattern, which includes compounds of facio, but not facio itself — which means that effice, etc. are the correct forms. Fac is a peculiarity. Unlike those of facio, the compounds of dico and duco mainly follow the pattern of the simple ...


5

mementō is formed from the reduplicated perfect stem (IE *me-mn-), not from the present stem (IE *men-). Thus, morphologically it is a perfect imperative, not a future imperative; the latter is always formed from the present stem. The IE imperative ending *-tōd has various different usages in the daughter languages: Greek -τω forms the 3rd sing. present ...


5

It was vel. From the LSJ: old imperative of volo properly, "will, choose, take your choice;" "hence." You cannot use it for your purpose, of course. This is merely its origin, but not its function.* In years of reading everything from Andronicus to Augustine, I've yet to see a real imperative of velle, and no grammar mentions one, either. *See comments ...


5

First, the original English version reads: He had made up a little hum that very morning, as he was doing his Stoutness Exercises in front of the glass. Based on this, exercitia graciliscenda means "stoutness exercises". Let us then study the word itself. The starting point is the adjective gracilis, meaning a number of things like "simple", "slim", and ...


5

To answer the other part of your question: salvas is of course 2nd (not 3rd) person singular, addressing God.


4

It seems so. According to Hriberšek, the imperfect and future were most likely periphrastic constructions, with forms of *fu(i)- following the main verb. He cites Sihler 1995 comparing this to the future tense in Romance: Late Latin cantāre habeō > Romance *cantare-habjo > French chanterai. It seems like this periphrasis is very old (probably dating from ...


4

The verb κεῖμαι isn't a contract verb like θεάομαι or ἡγέομαι (or a 'regular' verb like λύω); it's an athematic verb like τίθημι, δίδωμι, or ἵημι, but deponent. So, the circumflex isn't showing contraction as it is in θεῶμαι and ἡγοῦμαι; it's used simply because the accent is on the penult, the penult is a long syllable, and the ultima is short, per the ...


4

The paradigm of fio is quite unusual - see its present indicative partial paradigm (fīmus and fītis are pretty much regular; from my undergrad textbook, Sobolevskii 1948): Weiss writes that "In Classical Latin fīo, fīunt, fīam etc. 'become' have been analogically restored" (p. 126). It seems this explanation goes back to Sommer 1902 (at least, that's ...


4

The perfect imperative is effectively extinct in Latin. I have never seen it with a perfect meaning, and in fact did not realize that mementō was based on a perfect stem until fdb pointed it out (though in retrospect the reduplication and perfect endings are a pretty good clue). The best place to look for evidence would be defective verbs, which might not ...


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