According to Miller (2006: 76, 78), the endings -men and -mentum form a deverbal (with one exception) noun with the semantics of means, instrument or result of action of the verb. Relevant quotations are
§3.4 -men [...] ‘means, instrument, result’
While -men is formally and functionally related to -mentum (LG i.§326), the
latter will be treated ...
Unfortunately, it seems that people have tried for centuries to answer this question, with limited success or at least limited consistency. For example:
In his 1841 Dictionary of Latin Synonymes, Lewis Ramshorn indicates that fourth-declension words derived from the supine "designate permanent conditions," while third-declention words in -tio and -sio ...
It is generally believed is that
"The Italic "1st declension" continues PIE feminine formations ("ā-stems") built with an invariable suffix *-eh2(-)" (Vine 2017: 755)
cf. Beekes 2011 proposal of an ablauting suffix *eh2(-) ~ *-h2(-)).
Weiss notes that
"Masculine nouns of the first declension that we find in Latin are largely personalizations of ...
I think abdomunculum would be the most regular diminutive of abdomen. But it seems a bit difficult to me to give a clear answer because the rules about "proper" diminutive suffixes are often based on the form and gender of the original noun, and I know of no existing diminutives formed on nouns with precisely the same morphological form and gender as abdomen,...
The suffix -landia is definitely derived from Germanic land. It has no clear cognates outside the Germanic languages and there are some hypotheses that it is a loan from some pre-indogermanic European language and/or that there is a connection to the Basque language.
I see no better Latin alternatives for Islandia or Nederlandia, but Finnia is definitely ...
They not only had the same meaning in Latin, they were the same suffix.
In Latin, the suffix -āli- (the -s at the end is the nominative ending, so not part of the suffix) formed adjectives from nouns. But when there was an l in the stem of the noun it was attached to, the suffix became -āri- by dissimilation: e.g. familia - familiāris. This is why Spanish ...
There is a regular sound change by which Latin a (long or short), when stressed and in an open syllable, became [e] or [ε]. A few examples out of many:
mare > mer
amāre > aimer
nāsum > nez
The past participle suffix is simply another case of this change: -ātum > -é. (It's conventional to cite Latin nouns in the accusative when talking about Romance changes ...
It's for emphasis, and older than the use of ipse as an intensifier. From Allen & Greenough §143.d:
Emphatic forms of tu are tute and tutemet (tutimet). The other cases of the personal pronouns, excepting the genitive plural, are made emphatic by adding -met: as, egomet, vosmet.
NOTE.—Early emphatic forms are mepte and tepte.
Wiktionary has a list ...
Allen & Greenough lists -etum/-tum under the heading 'Nouns with Adjective Suffixes' (section 254). It notes that the suffix denotes 'place of a thing, especially with names of trees and plants to designate where these grow.'
The examples provided are:
quercetum, 'oak grove'
olivetum, 'olive grove'
salictum, 'a willow thicket'
Argiletum, 'The Clay Pit' ...
Yes, feminine forms exist. This is covered in sections 845–848 of Smyth's Greek Grammar. Here are some examples:
Βορέας > Βορεάδης, 'son of Boreas'; Βορεάς -δος, 'daughter of Boreas'
Θέστιος > Θεστιάδης, 'son of Thestius'; Θεστιάς -δος, 'daughter of Thestius'
Φέρης > Φερητιάδης, 'son of Pheres'; Φερητιάς -ιάδος, 'daughter of Pheres'
Περσεύς > Περσηιάδης, ...
Gary Miller, in Latin Suffixal Derivatives in English and Their Indo-European Ancestry says that there is no direct relation between nouns formed from verbs with -ura and the similar future active participles.
Formally, this suffix seems to be an adjectival *-ro- (fem. *-reh2) extension of nominal *-t(e/o)u-.... While -tura bears a close resemblance to ...
I assume that you are asking about nouns like motus, -ūs, not the perfect passive participle motus, -ī. The former is one of many masculine abstract deverbal nouns with the suffix –tu-, like cantus “singing”, and similar formations in Greek, Sanskrit etc. These are not from the p.p.p. as such; they merely share the element /t/. From an IE perspective, the ...
On the model of homō, hominis (stem = homin), the recorded diminutives of which are homullus (< homōnlus) and homunculus, I'd guess abdōmullus or abdōmunculus (update: or maybe abdōmullum or abdōmunculum).
The topic of suffixes for various types of words is covered in, e.g., §176 ff. of Gildersleeve & Lodge, Latin Grammar. Diminutive suffixes are ...
If the original question is about English, it's in the wrong stack. However, if you're looking for a Latin form, I'd like to offer another alternative: taking the noun, making it into an adjective with -osus, and then making that superlative.
Let's take, for example, take the word populus, "people." To describe a place as being "full of people,...
Weiss writes that
"The interrogative enclitic particle -ne becomes -n in Plautus when apocope produces an acceptable coda" (p. 147, footnote 79), i.e. *-Vsn- > *-V ̅n- (I.B.8.b, p. 169).
He gives the following examples:
scivin (Pseud. 977), vin (Curc. 313).
He also says that "[v]erbal forms ending in -s often lose the s with compensatory lengthening" ...
There are a few Latin verbs ending in -izare, and they are almost all Greek loanwords. (This list was generated by using the search for “words ending with …” on the Perseus server—do note that it contains a few false positives, some of the entries are no verbs at all.) And this is not surprising, as -ῐ́ζω is a common suffix in Greek used for forming verbs ...
If words that combine elements from Latin and Greek are allowed, there's the fairly prolific Greek prefix myri(a)-, which literally means '10,000' but is used in a general way for very large numbers, in the sense 'countless'. This would give myriacorn.
Disclaimer: I don't know any Greek. This is an answer based on Internet research (and now some helpful comments from Modern Greek speakers), not an expert answer. I would advise against accepting it or using it as the basis of any serious decision about forming a word.
"-klopy"/"-clopy" seems most preferable to me in that there are at least two Greek words ...
Buck, Comparative grammar p. 335, writes that Latin -ētum is “originally from verb stems in ē, as in acētum ‘vinegar’ (acēscō ‘turn sour’), but productive in nouns of place, especially place where a plant grows.”
de Vann derives acētum from aceō ‘be sour’, not from the inchoative acēscō; in any case the ē is part of the stem. It seems possible to me that ...
It looks like Greek speakers weren't too sure either. I did a very cursory search through words in -ίδιον on Perseus and found one example of each type:
τειχίδιον < τεῖχος "wall"
ἑλκείδιον < ἕλκος "wound"
Both these words are rare and my search was far from thorough, so I'm sure there's more evidence to be found.
The idea is that *lowks-nā is originally a feminine (hence -ā) adjective meaning “shining”. The suffix *no commonly forms adjectives, e.g. dignus, magnus, plenus etc. It is the exact equivalent of Avestan raoxšna- “bright”.
As the OED explains, “tribal” is an English formation (first attested 1632). French “tribal” is a recent borrowing from English (1872). Latin “tribulis” is not an adjective, but a noun, meaning “fellow tribesman”. The adjective from “tribus” is in fact “tributus” “formed into tribes”, which might just do for the other meanings of “tribal”.
This is going to be an unsatisfying answer, but I'll post what I've found anyway.
The usual best source for Latin etymologies is De Vaan. Unfortunately, he only covers developments from Proto-Indo-European to the start of Latin; since september was derived within Latin itself, he mentions it only in passing.
Tucker's (significantly less modern) ...
Previous installment: Substantive adjectives "Latīna, Graeca" as language names
Related Qs: Deriving adjectives from city names, Someone of someplace
I'll start by answering the questions:
no and no
it doesn't indicate Italian descent or culture, but a looser connection
it's a generic solecism, except pehaps in millipede Latin
First of all, the ...
Does Latin allow the letter k in suffixed words?
It doesn't, because Latin doesn't allow the letter K at all.
Well, almost; there are a couple of words with K and they mostly have spelling variants with C.
In particular, the words you mention are never spelled with a K in Latin.
I have never seen K within a Latin word, only at the beginning.
(Perhaps there ...
I know of 2 others off the top of my head.
satin from satisne
Plautus, Amphitruo 604:
quas, malum, nugas? satin tu sanus es?
Cicero, De officiis 3.73:
quid ergo? satin est hoc, ut non deliquisse videantur?
scin from scisne, mentioned by Rafael in a comment
Plautus, Amphitruo 671:
scin quam bono animo sim?
Cicero, Epistulae ad Atticum 1.13.4:
From Lewis/Short, s.v. cum:
Cum in anastrophe. So always with the pers. pron.: mecum, tecum, secum, nobiscum, etc.; cf. Cic. Or. 45, 154; Prisc. pp. 949 and 988 P.; and in gen. with the rel. pron.: “quocum (quīcum), quacum, quibuscum, quīcum (for quocum),” Cic. Or. 45, 154; Liv. 38, 9, 2; Cic. Att. 5, 1, 4; Cic. Verr. 2, 2, 31, §§ 76 and 77; Caes. B. G. 1, ...