21

The best way we know how consonantal V being pronounce as /w/ is in transcriptions into other languages. For example, the Roman name Valerius is transcribed as Ουαλεριος (Ooalerios) in Greek inscriptions. Greeks did not have a /w/ sound, but if you pronounce ου (ou) quickly enough, you get an approximate to it. You do not, though, get close to /v/. ...


16

There is indeed evidence for the u-consonant being pronounced as a voiced fricative during the Classical period, even as early as the middle of the 1st century. A wax tablet dated to AD 39 records a transaction by merchant Gaius Nouius Eunus, about which Clackson and Horrocks write: Eunus’s text provides us with one of the earliest examples of the ...


15

Yes, there are exceptions, but fortunately not very many. Allen & Greenough has a short summary at §12.a, which I'll discuss here. The first common exception you'll come across is a word with an enclitic (-que, -ve, -ne). With these, the accent always falls on the penult of the new word, so, using an example from Allen and Greenough, the accent for ...


13

Imho the most comprehensive treatment of Latin accent (beautifully defined as "anima vocis" by some Roman grammarians) is Leumann, Hofmann, and Szantyr 1977, Lateinische Grammatik. Band I. Lateinische Laut- und Formenlehre. (para 235-246, Betonung und Akzent). Caveat: It is in German. There is some evidence that even Roman grammarians admitted struggling ...


9

Sampson 1999 summarizes research on nasalization of vowels in Latin: "there is every reason for believing that in the history of Latin significant vowel nasality, allophonic and perhaps even phonemic, may well have been found at different times, in different places, and with different sociolinguisic significance" (p. 42). Researchers don't entirely ...


9

I'll just add one class to what C. M. Weimer says in his excellent answer, which is shortened fourth-conjugation first-person singular perfects. Dormiī, audiī, veniī, and the like are all stressed on a short penultimate syllable, even though it's short. Like some of the other exceptions, this stress was regular before a letter disappeared; they come from ...


8

This is well-known and virtually all good grammars discuss this (as vowel syncope). Genetivus singularis helps us reconstruct the original nom.sg. form (synchronically), that's why we learn nouns in Latin in two forms, nominativus singularis and genetivus singularis. Type A. No change, the vowel was present in all forms. Nom. sg. pueros > *puers > puer ...


8

§ 1. Latin, Greek, and Hebrew I would argue that the consonant V by itself was never pronounced as a W, and that something near to the W sound only occurred depending on the position of the letter within a word, of which V [ U ] would then act as a semi-vowel. Speaking of consonantal V, Walter Blair says: ...the evidence which we have to adduce points to a ...


8

W. Sydney Allen, in Vox Latina, page 41, gives several examples that support the [w] pronunciation of the consonantal u in Classical Latin. The first example appears in the writings of Nigidius Figulus (Gellius, x, 4, 4), in which he apparently equates the lip position of the consonant and vowel sounds: in a discussion of the origins of language, he ...


8

It is generally assumed, based on graphic data (including misspellings), that palatalization in Latin was operational as early as the second century AD (e.g. Maiden 1995, Repetti 2016, Weiss 2009/2011, among many, many others). Clackson and Horrocks 2007/2011 add that it became general by the fifth century AD (p. 274). Of course, it didn't happen overnight, ...


7

Closed. As X stands for CS, an X between two vowels means that there are two consonants between them and therefore the preceding syllable is always heavy/long. Sydney Allen in Vox Latina mentions this indirectly. In addition to pointing out that X is CS, he mentions that this leads to a case of hidden quantity, and earlier mentions that hidden quantity is a ...


7

There are plenty of examples of a foreign [ʃ] being transcribed by Latin "s" (or medially "ss") but the vast majority come via Greek. Apart from the numerous Hebrew names found in the Greek Bible, there are various Parthian or Sassanian names that contained [ʃ], for examples "Arsaces" for the Parthian king "Arshak", but this too comes via Greek Ἀρσάκης. ...


7

The answer is complicated for two reasons: first, the digraph ει actually stood for two different sounds; and second, both these sounds and the sound of η later fell together into a single vowel sound. I'll describe the phonetic values of these symbols at the stage when the three different pronunciations were still distinct. η stood for a long open-mid ...


7

In a third-conjugation verb, a [g] sound at the end of a present stem generally alternates with a [k] sound, written as ⟨c⟩, before the [t] of the past participle/supine suffix. I believe the phonemic representations of these sounds would usually be given as /g/ and /k/ respectively; if that is correct, this is not a case where "/g/ is written as c"...


6

There is no single standard for Latin pronunciation. The main division is between reconstructed pronunciation (based on our idea of what Classical Latin sounded like) vs. everything else. As Draconis mentioned, in reconstructed pronunciation <ti> is just pronounced as a sequence of the T sound [t] followed by one of the two I sounds, ĭ [i~ɪ] or ī [iː]. ...


6

The common pronunciation depends somewhat on when you're learning, as well as where. In recent decades there's been a push toward "reconstructed" pronunciation in education; if you learned that "c" is always /k/, this is probably what you're using. In reconstructed pronunciation, tĭ (as in sentiō) is /tɪ/, and tī (as in sentīre) is /tiː/. In other words, ...


6

This is called vowel reduction. Basically, a vowel that loses emphasis becomes weaker. This is very typical with one-syllable prefixes: ars > iners, facere > efficere. It can also happen due to inflection, as in tango > tetigi (from stem tag- with nasal augment in present stem and reduplication in perfect stem). Old Latin had initial stress and therefore ...


5

In early classical poetry, a final /s/ did not necessarily make position in Vs CV. This is common enough in Plautus, especially when combined with Brevis Brevians, and seems to diminish in frequency with time. It is still present in Lucilius, and the very last instance is in Catullus. I cannot run an analysis of the frequency of voiced vs unvoiced consonants,...


5

The general tendency was to dissolve a geminate ss in writing, and also presumably in speech, only after a long vowel or diphthong. If this weren't the case, then there would be virtually no instances where ss still occurred in text. “There are several processes at work in Latin which simplify geminates to single consonants. The most important of these is ...


5

Sturtevant, The Pronunciation of Greek and Latin, p. 88, has a relevant passage, though he doesn't go into details: Since Attic and Hellenistic Greek had no such sound as Classical Lat. v, namely [w], a substitution was necessary and the choice lay between ου and β. For a long time the former was preferred; but as [β] became a more and more frequent ...


5

This is a symbol borrowed from Proto-Indo-European—linguists working with PIE regularly use *l̥ for something like IPA /l̩/, a syllabic lateral, not a voiceless one. However, I'm not quite sure why the authors of that article posit a syllabic lateral here. I've never seen syllabic resonants proposed for any stage of Latin before.


5

The short answer would be no. Nōmen is a well-known example of a word that did not historically start with a velar consonant but that has a velar in some related prefixed words: agnōmen, cognōmen, ignōminia (but not in praenōmen or prōnōmen). This is thought to be the result of analogy. There seem to be certain words in Latin which start with an ...


4

"Nosco", not "gnosco", was the usual form, because of a pre-Classical sound change of word-initial gn- to n- As Joonas Ilmavirta♦'s answer indicates, gnosco was an "old form" (Lewis & Short), not the usual form in Classical Latin. Lindsay (1894) says "Initial Latin gn became at the beginning of the second cent. B.C. n (as in Engl. 'gnat'), e.g. nōsco, ...


4

You're right that such gemination is not correct Classical pronunciation, and I believe the answer to your question whether it occurred in post-Classical Latin/Romance is no. Italian amata does not, at least in standard pronunciation, have a geminate; phonetically it's [ama:ta], versus e.g. matta [mat:a] with a geminate t. To the best of my knowledge, there ...


3

Internal etymological reconstruction, as well as spelling, supports the connection of V with the vowel U in Latin, and comparative etymology shows that [v] in Latin corresponds to [w] in English. Phonetic considerations make it more plausible to suppose that the value [w] came first, and Latin [v] developed from [w]. These considerations don't tell us when ...


3

I don't know exactly why you have heard pronunciations of Italian amata with a long /tː/, but I would guess this is just a case of different speakers using different phonetic durations for phonemically singleton consonants. The exact realization of gemination is not the same in all languages/language varieties, so some Italian speakers may use something that ...


3

A pronunciation like [sũːmʊs] for summus in Classical Latin seems rather unlikely considering that the Italian reflex is sommo [somːo] and not [suːmo]. As far as I know, the letter M in Latin is thought to have represented the nasal consonant [m] in any position but word-final (and excluding compound words, which I will discuss in the section below)*. So ...


3

Alongside the prefix ex- ~ ē- there is the preposition ex ~ ē, which offers a way of testing whether the same s-loss occurs before a voiced consonant at a word boundary. If it consistently does, we should expect to find ē before voiced consonants and ex otherwise. This is not the case, as the question linked to by sumelic shows: there are phrases like ex ...


3

It was spelled almost exclusively nosco instead of gnosco, so it appears likely that the pronunciation was a mere [n]. It sounds unlikely that a word spelled with n- would be pronounced with anything heavier, and this is corroborated by the scansion of Aeneis 12.876: obscenae uolucres: alarum uerbera nosco The syllable before nosco must be short. However,...


1

Evidence I've found for an opened quality for word-final ĭ So far, my own research has uncovered the following piece of evidence for word-final ĭ having the quality [ɪ] rather than [i]: Italian has (d)ove from Latin (de) ubi. I don't find this especially convincing as evidence for the pronunciation of ĕ and ŏ, though, because it seems to me that high vowel ...


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