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14 votes
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Why "dilatasti" instead of "dilatavisti" in Psalm 4:2?

This is a contracted perfect form, which is fairly common in poetry, particularly in the first conjugation. Basically, whenever you have a second person perfect active ending in -āvisti (like ...
Draconis's user avatar
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13 votes
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Which verbs have reduplicated perfect stems?

Since you’re asking about reduplicated perfect (and not reduplicated present, as in bibo < *pi-ph3-e or sero < si-sh1-e, Weiss 2009: 405), I will try to address perfect formation only. One of ...
Alex B.'s user avatar
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13 votes
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Why did Hieronymus choose to use Latin tenses that don't exist in Hebrew when translating for the Vulgata?

I have two thoughts about this. First, the thing to keep in mind here is that different languages use different tenses differently. In English, for example, I'd use the present tense followed by the ...
Joel Derfner's user avatar
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11 votes
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What is the origin of the 3rd-person plural perfect ending "-ēre"?

(This answer is based on Weiss's Historical and Comparative Grammar of Latin, which is usually the place to go for this kind of thing.) The most common Indo-European 3pl active ending is -nt(i), ...
TKR's user avatar
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10 votes
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Latin for English "has been" + adjective?

I'd say you want the present tense. A&G 466, "Present with iam diu etc.": The Present with expressions of duration of time (especially iam diu, iam dudum) denotes an action continuing in the ...
TKR's user avatar
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9 votes
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Does the perfect "faxit" have an optative sense?

It's actually not indicative, but subjunctive. I know Perseus' morph tool parses it as both indicative and subjunctive, but both Gildersleeve and the OLD say it's subjunctive and do not mention ...
cmw's user avatar
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8 votes
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Perfect tense used to convey a planned action in the future

This comes down to what's often called the "epistolary tenses." Epistles tend to behave differently from other prose, probably due to the fact that the writer is conceiving of the time at ...
cmw's user avatar
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7 votes
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Why are "esurivi" and "sitivi" used in perfect, but "hospes eram" in imperfect in the same context?

In the Greek original of Mt 25, 35-36: ἐπείνασα γάρ, καὶ ἐδώκατέ μοι φαγεῖν, ἐδίψησα, καὶ ἐποτίσατέ με, ξένος ἤμην, καὶ συνηγάγετέ με, γυμνός, καὶ περιεβάλετέ με, ἠσθένησα, καὶ ἐπεσκέψασθέ με, ἐν ...
fdb's user avatar
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7 votes

Does the perfect "faxit" have an optative sense?

faxim is (according to one theory) the subjunctive (historically: optative) of the old s-aorist; note that Old Latin also had an s-future faxō. There is a rather convoluted discussion of this in ...
fdb's user avatar
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7 votes
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Is the U long or short in the forms ussi and ustus of the verb ūro?

The double ss is evidence for a short vowel in ussi (at least at some point) Just a short time after posting this question, I remembered a relevant fact. Even though there wasn't (as far as I know) a ...
Asteroides's user avatar
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6 votes

Which verbs have reduplicated perfect stems?

As indicated in previous answers, reduplication comes from Proto-Indoeuropean, mainly for stative aspect and imperfective aspect verb forms. This reduplication is seen in many PIE-derived languages, ...
brianpck's user avatar
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6 votes

Why are "esurivi" and "sitivi" used in perfect, but "hospes eram" in imperfect in the same context?

Just to complement fdb's answer, the tense selection does not make the text grammatically wrong, but adds a nuance if read as it is written. The imperfect is not necessarily ongoing now, but was ...
Rafael's user avatar
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6 votes
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Do any Latin verbs use a temporal augment?

First, it's not at all clear that Proto-Indo-European used the augment (temporal or syllabic): it's found in Greek, Indo-Iranian, Armenian, and Phrygian, but not in the other languages, so most likely ...
TKR's user avatar
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6 votes

The lexical root of the perfect tense forms differs from the lexical root of the infinitive form

In general, this is called suppletion: when some forms of a verb are stolen from a totally different verb. For example, English to go has no past-tense forms; the past tense is taken from the ...
Draconis's user avatar
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6 votes
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Is it better to memorize verb's 1st person perfect tense?

Unfortunately you do need to memorize the perfect stem for each verb you learn. Many verbs are similar, and it helps a lot that many first conjugation verbs have the -v- in perfect forms. But not all ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
6 votes
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What verb forms εἴσηκται as 3 s pf m/p?

According to Perseus's morphology tool, this form comes from the compound εἰσ-άγω, "to lead into".
Draconis's user avatar
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6 votes
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Deponent verb participle gender

It is the second option with arbitrata. For the purposes of agreement, you can think of the participle as an adjective, so that Syra arbitrata est and Syra Romana est have exactly the same form. The ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
6 votes
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Is "Noli illud dixisse!" good Latin for "You should not have said that!"?

Woodcock in Paragraph 112 uses the imperfect subjunctive to express these meanings. Tu ne faceres tale, "you should not have behaved so", quoting Plautus. [Argentum] non redderes, "you ...
Figulus's user avatar
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6 votes
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Questions for Regulus

I'll address each question in order: Translation of "pencil" Regarding the translation of "pencil" (French: "crayon"), the word is graphis, -idis, which is a Latinization ...
brianpck's user avatar
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5 votes

Is there a semantic difference between the two perfect tenses in medieval Latin?

Note: Not a direct answer, but... According to A.G. Rigg, 'Morphologoy and Syntax' in Mantello and Rigg, eds, Medieval Latin: An Introduction and Bibliographical Guide (Washington, DC, 1996), 85: ...
jon's user avatar
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5 votes
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What is the difference between present and perfect conjunctive in hesitation?

Pinkster in the Oxford Latin Syntax (pp. 492ff.) discusses this question, but finds no clear answer. He considers three explanations: (a) there is a difference in meaning, specifically a difference of ...
TKR's user avatar
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5 votes

Latin usage & perfect passive finite verb forms

Yes, it does happen. The esse and the perfect participle need not be anywhere near each other. For example, Cicero (in Verrem 2.1.16) writes: In Siciliam sum inquirendi causa profectus. The verb ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
5 votes
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Is there an aoristic-perfective distinction in the Latin perfect?

There is, in fact! As you mention, the Latin "perfect tense" is a combination of the present perfective and past aoristic tense-aspect combinations, which remained separate in Greek (the &...
Draconis's user avatar
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5 votes
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Is the third person passive perfect of a verb a source of nouns, e.g. "benedictus" from "bendico"?

They come from the same source, in this case. The noun benedictus is a substantive: that is, an adjective on its own, acting as a noun. This is very common in Latin, and also shows up sometimes in ...
Draconis's user avatar
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5 votes
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When did unsyncopated forms become archaic?

Manu Leumann's Lateinische Laut- und Formenlehre (Munich 1977) groups the contraction of -āvis- to -ās- in forms like amāstī and amāssem together with the contraction of -āver- to -ār- in forms like ...
Asteroides's user avatar
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5 votes

Why not future perfect in Jerome's Epistola 22?

Both habuerō and lēgerō (not legerō, as there is no such form) are future perfect forms. A very literal translation of the end of the quote would be: Sī unquam habuerō codicēs saeculārēs, sī lēgerō, ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
5 votes

Does suffero have perfect forms?

The form sustuli appears under the entries for both tollo and suffero in Lewis and Short. However, sustinuit is a form of sustineo, and not of suffero (contrary to what the link you provided says). ...
Expedito Bipes's user avatar
5 votes
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What does "vestem scindebat" mean?

The whole sentence is not particularly long and goes like this: Ariadna igitur in litus descendit atque huc et illuc currens multis cum lacrimis capillum et vestem scindebat, ut homines qui maerent ...
Sebastian Koppehel's user avatar
5 votes

Questions for Regulus

[1] For graphida, you would have had to recognize the classic 3rd declension ending -is, -idis, which is common among words of Greek origin. That makes the word in question graphis, which can mean a ...
cmw's user avatar
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4 votes
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Understanding 'percepset' instead of 'percepisset'

I believe they are very rare, but it is possible to find some others. I have found vixet in the Aeneid: [Publius Vergilius Maro, Aeneis 11.118] apparat, his mecum decuit concurrere telis: ...
Cerberus's user avatar
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