43

It appears that -que was treated much like a word. Especially Ovidius does not treat it as an enclitic, but more as an independent word. This becomes evident in quotes, where -que is outside the quote but the word it is attached to is inside. Take a look at this question on a specific instance of this (for the version -c) and this list for a number of ...


18

Dictionaries often explicitly mark long and short vowels, with a macron and breve accent, respectively. In such a dictionary, you will recognize a consonantic i from not having either accent: māiŭs¹. The same applies to consonantic u (if the dictionary doesn’t use v). This only applies to dictionaries that mark both short and long vowels explicitly; this is ...


18

I believe lacryma is generally considered a hypercorrect misspelling. The archaic Latin spelling was lacruma, still sometimes used in classical Latin, or an even older dacrima/dacruma. The standard spelling was lacrima. In Greek, it is spelled dakru or dakruon, which would be 'properly' translitterated into Latin as dacry(on). But the only spellings with a ...


17

Here are a few "rules of thumb" I use. I can't guarantee these will work in all cases. If you're an English speaker, look at a related English word from Latin. If it's spelled with "j," it was probably consonantal "j" in Latin as well. For example, we can compare Latin MAIVS to English "major," Latin OBIECTVM to English "object," and so on. Generally, ...


15

It's an alternate form of ave; the L&S entry gives a couple of examples. Presumably this form arose through hypercorrection: since h was generally not pronounced in popular speech, confusion easily arose about which words did and did not contain it. Catullus makes fun of a certain Arrius who inserted h's where they weren't needed.


14

The consensus seems to be that SPQR means Senatus Populusque Romanus, but there is also the theory that SPQR did not mean Senatus Populusque Romanus. It could also may have been Senatus Populus Quirites Romani. I've read this in the entry for Quirites in the dictionary Langenscheidt Großes Schulwörterbuch Lateinisch-Deutsch which I unfortunately don't ...


12

Secundus is regular, eqvus isn't There's a sound change called the "Boukólos Rule", which started back in Proto-Indo-European. When labiovelar consonants (like /kʷ/ and /gʷ/) appeared next to /w/ or /u/, they dissimilated and lost their labialization, becoming /k/ and /g/. The rule is named after one of the first known examples, Greek βουκόλος "cowherd". ...


11

The modern German roman-type ß was developed at the end of the 19th century as an analogue of the blackletter ß, which was a ligature of ſ and z (which is reflected in its name) that had slowly acquired letter status and looked distinctively different from your ſs (more like ſʒ). Some of the new ß designs may have been inspired by your ſs and similar forms. ...


11

The following is based mostly on Clackson and Horrocks 2007/2011, Leumann 1977, and Wallace 2011. First of all, something to keep in mind, as Weiss 2009/2011 puts it, is that "Long vowels were generally not distinguished in Latin orthography" (p. 29; emphasis mine - Alex B.). That being said, there were four exceptions. Geminatio vocalium (the double ...


10

The C is a -que. It is quite common to abbreviate neque (= ne+que) as nec. I see two ways to parse that verse and interpret the C: And he noticed the goddess and said: "Don't go further!" And he noticed the goddess, said: "And don't go further!" (I didn't read around that verse, so the translation may not be optimal. But that's beside the point.) The ...


10

There is a longstanding view that the interjection ave is not the imperative of the verb aveo “to long for”, but is a loan from Punic ḥawe (tentative vocalisation), the imperative of the Semitic verb ḥ-w-h “to live”. The first attestations are in Plautus, who also uses the plural havo (=Punic ḥawū) three times in his Poenulus. If this is true, then have ...


10

*Please see addendum at the bottom I have found two possible explanations for the circumflex: (1) to indicate a long vowel and (2) to indicate an ablative. Both of these functions would seem to overlap! Earlier grammarians frequently used the circumflex to indicate a long vowel. A practical grammar of the Latin language; with perpetual exercises in ...


10

I'm afraid my answer is the boring one: free variation, based on the amount of space available. The tilde originally arose purely as an abbreviation: instead of writing an n or m in line with the text, it could be written above the vowel instead, saving a bit of space. Eventually its form got simplified into the tiny squiggle we use nowadays. But the ...


9

The Romans actually didn't use diacritical marks for the most part. I understand that this question was asked based off of a comment made on a post (which was answered by myself). In my response, I used two diacritical marks: the acute accent (Á) and the macron (ā). These marks are used by modern Latinists to distinguish between long and short vowels, with ...


9

This is what I’ve been able to find – thanks to Oliver 1966. Oliver 1966 (in footnote 42) mentions two documents important to us, both of them most likely were schoolbook texts: A fifth-century fragment from Virgil (text number 11 in Cavenaile Corpus papyrorum Latinarum); a leaf from a parchment codex of Juvenal (sixth century AD) – it is text number 37 ...


9

Using the texts stored in the Latin Library as a guide, we can see that the prevalence of eumdem waxes and wanes through history. Its earliest significant use in writing appears to be approximately the 4th century, and it reaches its height in the late Medieval period, but even then it does not displace eundem. Earliest usage Several works from the post-...


9

I'm not sure about the particular history of Lacrymosa/Lacrimosa and its derivation from dáḱru- (as @brianpck points out), but Vox Latina (by W. Sidney Allen) explains that words with i/y alternative spellings can reflect later changes in Greek pronunciation where upsilon and iota get confused (pg. 53): In the popular Greek speech of some areas from the ...


9

In addition to Chirlu's excellent answer, although there is no hard rule, a rule of thumb does exist. If a syllable starts with an i and then a vowel other than i, the initial i is normally pronounced /j/; otherwise, it is pronounced /i/. When in doubt, the pronunciation can be inferred from the metre in verse.


9

Note that the letter Z has been associated with affricate sounds like [ts] for a very long time. Ancient use of "Z" for affricate sounds Zeta in Classical Attic Greek is thought to have represented [zd], but there is some evidence for [dz] as another pronunciation that existed in different dialects or stages of Greek. On this site, Alex B's answer to "Why ...


8

Anlaut (word initial position): i+V = >j+V, e.g. iubeo (in most cases) but also i+V => i+V only in some forms of the pronoun is (ii, iis) and the verb ire (iens, ii, ieram); also in Greek loans (iambus, iaspis, iota, Io, Iones etc.) Inlaut (word medial position): In compounds and prefixed verbs C+i => C+j adiacet V+i => V+j seiungo V+i+V => V+i+V ...


8

Check out the Epigraphic Database Heidelberg. It thankfully allows you to search words, which will allow you to look at deeper results. From a cursory search, though it seems that conl- is earlier, but by the Augustan Age, both were frequently used.: For conl: note that Sulla's inscription in Delos has conlegia and conlata. It's early and frequent, even ...


8

To be able to generate a list of candidates, one should know some common ways to produce different principal parts from a given stem. To produce the present stem (the first principal part as you call it) one might add a nasal before the last consonant. To produce the perfect stem one might reduplicate the first syllable, with possibility for vowel gradation....


8

As we all know, the Romans did not have punctuation. Modern (and not so modern) editions of Latin books generally follow the typographic norms of the country where they are printed. For example, Latin texts published in France and Germany use lower-case initials for adjectives derived from proper nouns (latina, like latin, lateinisch), while those published ...


8

The source referenced in a Wikipedia-entry: SPQR är en förkortning för Senatus Populusque Romanus, [se'na:tus popu'luskwe ro'ma:nus], vilket betyder "senaten och det romerska folket". Eller Senatus Populus Quiritium Romanus Romerska riket, senaten och det kviritisk-romerska folket.[1] Where the reference [1] refers to a blog post by "maximuxz" in 4th of ...


7

According to scholars, the earliest written sign ever argued to play the role of an interrogation mark comes from a VI century Syriac manuscript, and passed later into Latin. My intuition is that, in this case too, necessity is the mother of invention. Especially in antiquity, it is not very likely that a mark for which there was no special need made it ...


7

Here is a better photocopy of the text in question from Google Books It is a pseudo-medical discussion of the healing properties of a hoopoe (Latin: upupa, -ae], which is a type of bird. I am not familiar with the source text, but it definitely straddles the domain of quackery. Here is the first sentence: Upupae caro est austera, et in pulvere eius est ...


7

In that particular example sentence, no. In general, yes. The circumflex used by some authors to indicate long vowels. I prefer to use the macron: hōra versus hōrā. Some ancient inscriptions used an "apex", a diacritic similar to the modern acute: hórá. Hōra with a short a is unambiguously nominative, "a time" or "an hour". While hōrā with a long a is ...


7

There is no difference between “unâ horâ” and “una hora” in this context Lapis descendit ab A ad B unâ horâ. Lapis descendit ab A ad B una hora. In the context of comparing these two sentences, there is no difference between “unâ horâ” and “una hora”. They mean the same thing (and should be pronounced the same way): they are purely orthographical ...


7

First, a pretty banal orthographic point. In Greek, only initial rho has a breathing mark, and there are only two recorded words (ῤάρος and its diminutive ῤάριον) that use a smooth breathing. Though it's not entirely clear why these words have a smooth breathing, they are obviously anomalies. The above strongly suggests that smooth rho wouldn't have been ...


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