16

I'll try to answer my own question, if I may. After a bit of research I discovered that no more than 300 years ago the meaning of Spanish actual was actually the same as English actual, as seen by this definition found in a Spanish dictionary from 1726: ACTUAL. Lo que real y verdaderamente existe al tiempo que se dice, ò enuncia. Translated: "what is ...


15

This pronunciation change was underway by the fifth century, but perhaps not finalized until the sixth or seventh. Paul M. Lloyd, in From Latin to Spanish, writes: There is no inscriptional evidence of [the palatalization of /k/ and /g/ before the front vowels] until the fifth century, although it may have begun long before, and it continued to be an ...


12

Sturtevant, The Pronunciation of Greek and Latin, says of the change in pronunciation of C before front vowels (p. 167): "The epigraphical evidence of this change is not abundant enough to inspire confidence before the sixth century". He doesn't discuss the evidence any further, unfortunately. Note that the change is a little more complicated than just "C ...


9

This seems to be a mystery. I haven't found any good explanation yet; I don't know if this is because the subject has been neglected so far, or if it's because the very occurrence of the phenomenon is still controversial and so nobody has attempted to give an explanation for it. The idea that Latin adverbs (and certain other words) were stressed or ...


9

Per Lewis & Short: actŭālis , e, adj. id., I. active, practical, Macr. Somn. Scip. 2, 17.—Adv.: ac-tŭālĭter , actively, Myth. Vatic. vol. 3, p. 181 ed. Bod. So it wasn't particularly close to either the English or the Spanish word actual. As an aside, the Oxford English Dictionary records usage of actual in English in the sense of (modern) actual ...


9

Note that the letter Z has been associated with affricate sounds like [ts] for a very long time. Ancient use of "Z" for affricate sounds Zeta in Classical Attic Greek is thought to have represented [zd], but there is some evidence for [dz] as another pronunciation that existed in different dialects or stages of Greek. On this site, Alex B's answer to "Why ...


8

An important note about my sources: A question has been raised by another user re: sources in my answer. Anyone can easily check the accuracy of my statements and sources. Dr. Stotz is an expert in Medieval Philology (i.e. post-Classical Latin); he is a professional linguist. Obviously, he has provided necessary bibliography about all the sources in his ...


8

Some of the reasons after the fall of the Western Roman Empire, contact between various regions slowed down and lost a lot of its importance; thus the strongest reason to maintain the unity of the language ceased to work also, at the same time Roman bureaucracy ceased to require correct Latin when there are no strong reasons to keep a language united, ...


8

In philosophy and theology there is a core distinction between potentiality and actuality. This distinction is originally from Greek philosophy, but can also found in medieval Christian theology (e.g. in Aquinas). The Latin terms are actus et potentia. Actus, in this philosophical position, refers to actual being, in immediate opposition to potentia, which ...


8

In Medieval Latin, K. P. Harrington briefly describes the style of Boethius (480–524) in his chapter entitled "The Rise of Late Latin": The sort of straightforward prose writing that had dominated philosophical and even theological discourse for centuries in Greek and, to a much lesser extent, in Latin was challenged by Late Latin writers of the so-called ...


7

Long comment: By the fifth century you'd already have this, this, this. Palatalization of "c" before "e" or "i" would still be under way. I'm not totally sure but "ae" and "oe" might have remained [ae̯] and [oe̯] until after the Fall of the Empire, because it seems that graphically they were replaced by "e" only around the XI century - in contrast the ...


7

According to the Etimologia botanica of Alexandre de Théis, these words originally referred to two different species. On the one hand, melimelum comes from the Greek μελίμηλον, and this originally belonged to the species pyrus paradisiaca: P. paradisiaca (pomme de paradis). Par allusion à son goût doux et agréable. Les Grecs nommoient ce fruit, dans le ...


7

It actually does appear in vulgar Latin. Here's Palmer, The Latin Language 319: [Infinitives], as we saw, are formally either old datives or locatives and both these cases could express purpose. This function is apparent in the expression dare bibere ... Such infinitives of purpose are especially common in colloquial and poetical texts after verbs of ...


7

Archaic and Classical Latin First of all, the letter Z has never been common in Archaic and Classical Latin, for a number of reasons, primarily because there was no such phoneme (see more on rhotacism in Latin). The earliest example of Z we have from Latin inscriptions is dated 81 BC, although it can be found in earlier Latin abecedaria - see my other ...


7

From the history of cats, it is clear that domesticated cats were introduced to the Romans from Egypt. Before that, the Romans had ferrets as mouse hunters. So the classical word feles refers to the wild cat, but the Wanderwort cattus (of unknown origin, maybe Nubian) refers to the the domesticated cat. Since domesticated cats are much more important to ...


6

Does quidam have a special meaning in this context? I have been unable to find any indication, beyond Chadwick's assertion, that using "quidam" was a "rhetorical convention of the time" to express notoriety. Lewis & Short gives no examples of classical usage. As you note, the example given of St. Paul is of a very different variety which is entirely ...


6

The original word is not fond-/fund-, but sphondylium, from the Greek σφονδύλιον. The original pronunciation would have been "sp-," but as the Greek phi softened, it turned into an /f/, and the /s/ in /sf-/ is masked by the /f/, which makes it sound redundant. Back to σφονδύλιον, which is derived from σφόνδυλος, the normal Greek word for 'vertebra.' From ...


6

It seems that Saint Augustine in your quote is describing the same phenomenon that we can see consistently marked in later Latin. While trying to read Marracci's 'Refutatio Alcorani' (https://books.google.nl/books?id=ye40VChDL6gC and https://archive.org/details/bub_gb_-KZEAAAAcAAJ), I noticed that certain words were written with an accent grave on the vowel ...


6

Latin actualis first occurs in Macrobius (5th century AD), who uses it to mean “active, efficient”. This is also the original meaning of French actuel. The shift of meaning to “present, current” happened in French at a very late date (apparently in the 19th century) and it was borrowed in this meaning from French into other languages such as Spanish and ...


6

We can judge some features of educated Late Latin from the Appendix Probi (probably from the 3rd or 4th century). It is a list of corrected errors. There are can see that learned speech was different from the popular usage. So at that time we already see indications that standard Late Latin had the same qualities for long and short vowels ("turma non torma")...


6

This is from Plin. Nat. Hist. Book 15, ix, 37 — his proxima amplitudine mala quae vocamus cotonea et Graece cydonea, e Creta insula advecta. incurvatos trahunt ramos prohibentque crescere parentem. plura eorum genera: chrysomela incisuris distincta, colore ad aurum inclinato, qui candidior nostratia cognominat, odoris praestantissimi — which, answering the ...


5

Very strangely, there is no entry for melimelum in (the electronic version of) L&S. I do not have the print version before me at the moment, but there are lots of good references (Pliny and others) in Gaffiot: https://www.lexilogos.com/latin/gaffiot.php?q=melimelum and in Georges: http://www.zeno.org/Zeno/0/Suche?q=melimelum&k=Georges-1913 EDIT: ...


5

One can use quam as an intensifier of plurimi, so that quam plurimi is most naturally translated as "very many" as in the translation you cite, or perhaps "quite many". There are several classical attestations of quam plurim-. Looking at those examples, I think reading quam plurimi as necessarily meaning "vast majority" is an over-analysis. In this case I ...


5

Here is the relevant passage: Augustine. Confessiones 2.3.6: Itaque illa exilivit pia trepidatione ac tremore et, quamvis mihi nondum fideli, timuit tamen vias distortas in quibus ambulant qui ponunt ad te tergum et non faciem. Literally: 'she (my mother) was, therefore, startled with a pious fear and trembling: for me, although not being faithful ...


4

The "slow" meaning came first. The Latin adjective is tardus -a -um (with adverb tarde), and its origin is unknown. But it definitely was used for "late" or "slow" in Latin (hence "tardy", "retardation"), and I've never seen it used for "afternoon". The verb tardāre/tardar is indeed related, but it seems to have come from the adjective, not the other way ...


4

In Byzantine and Modern Greek τζ is used for /dʒ/ and τσ for /tʃ/ in foreign words, in MG especially in loans from Turkish, e.g. τζαμί < T. cami /dʒami/ “mosque”, and τσάι for çay /tʃaj/ “tea”. This does not really have anything to do with Latin.


4

Yes, Nobilitas (est) unica virtus is a very good translation. Leaving est out is common, and Nobilitas unica virtus is very much in the style you would see in a coat of arms, for example. I recommend using the shorter variant. Two small remarks: The quote is somewhat ambiguous (as things often are): it could be "virtue is nobility" or "nobility is virtue". ...


3

That English translation is very good, in my opinion. For the sake of comparison, here's my rendering. And you say: "if you live [literally "will have lived"] piously in Christ, all good things will abound for you. And if you do not have children, you will voluntarily take in and support and take care of all [people], and nobody will die with you. ...


3

There are several noticeable differences between Latins, but I think that the most important would be the vocabulary and punctuation. Rather than using sum and eram, in Medieval Latin, one might use fui and fueram. New Latin and even Renaissance Latin adopted many words from Old French, Greek, and similar languages, like systema and nostalgia. Sentence ...


3

The expressions may sometimes be equivalent, but there are two features particular to areo. First,the verb can communicate a durative or even progressive aspect, "continues without water" or "is drying out." Vergil, Eclogae, 10.67: cum moriens alta liber aret in ulmo, (while the dying bark grows dry on the lofty elm) Second, the verb has a negative ...


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