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15 votes
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Is it acceptable/regular to use diacritics (macron) in written texts?

Latin doesn't have a single standardized orthography. The spelling "perfectio" is a fine way to write the Latin word for "perfection". In fact, a number of people would prefer "perfectio" over "...
Asteroides's user avatar
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11 votes
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Interpretation of circumflex in a poem from 1621

*Please see addendum at the bottom I have found two possible explanations for the circumflex: (1) to indicate a long vowel and (2) to indicate an ablative. Both of these functions would seem to ...
Penelope's user avatar
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9 votes
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What are popular fonts for polytonic Greek?

I've long relied on the free Gentium typeface, which has a simply gorgeous, highly readable polytonic Greek font, with diacriticals that I've always found quite easy to distinguish, both on the ...
cnread's user avatar
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8 votes
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What are the ways in which Greek print might indicate diaeresis?

One option, as you say, is putting a diacritic on the first vowel. Since diacritics are always put on the second vowel of a diphthong, and breathings are always put on the first vowel of a word, αἰ ...
Draconis's user avatar
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8 votes
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Qua ratione in hoc libro Henrici Allen notæ diacriticæ ponuntur?

This has been referred to as the Neo-Latin Orthography. An example of a grammar written with this type of orthography is An Introduction to the Latin Tongue by G. N. Wright. Concerning the use of ...
Expedito Bipes's user avatar
7 votes
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Use of circumflex in Latin: Is there a difference between "hora" and "horâ"?

There is no difference between “unâ horâ” and “una hora” in this context Lapis descendit ab A ad B unâ horâ. Lapis descendit ab A ad B una hora. In the context of comparing these two sentences, ...
Asteroides's user avatar
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7 votes

Use of circumflex in Latin: Is there a difference between "hora" and "horâ"?

In that particular example sentence, no. In general, yes. The circumflex used by some authors to indicate long vowels. I prefer to use the macron: hōra versus hōrā. Some ancient inscriptions used an &...
Draconis's user avatar
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6 votes

Is it acceptable/regular to use diacritics (macron) in written texts?

Since sumelic gave a good description of spelling conventions, let me focus on translation alone. I don't quite understand how lux astrum is supposed to work. The only way I can make sense of it is ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
6 votes
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What does quȩ mean, and what does an e with cedilla mean?

It stands for “quae”, here the nominative plural neuter of the relative pronoun.
fdb's user avatar
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5 votes
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Was Greek ever written in this way at any time in antiquity?

All these features you've mentioned not only can be found, but also they're pretty much default. All ancient Greek inscriptions were written simply in a (rather than the, as there were several ...
cmw's user avatar
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5 votes
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The correct use of the breve in Latin

Use of breve The breve is only used for emphasis. In the typical Latin text no breve or macron appears. When vowel lengths need to be indicated, it is often done by adding macrons over all long vowels ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
5 votes
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About scribal abbreviations and diacritics in digitalized book titles

In my opinion, you should not try to "improve" the text acciording to your own whims, but represent the text as it is. This means keeping the ampersands and accents as they are. To expand, the grave ...
varro's user avatar
  • 4,713
4 votes

How do I know where to place macrons?

This is a very useful tool: "A Latin Macronizer" at http://alatius.com/macronizer. It automatically adds macrons to any Latin text, while highlighting ambiguous or unknown words, which you will have ...
Jasper May's user avatar
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