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15

Latin doesn't have a single standardized orthography. The spelling "perfectio" is a fine way to write the Latin word for "perfection". In fact, a number of people would prefer "perfectio" over "perfectiō". I would not recommend using a macron in a slogan, especially since you are also spelling the word jacet with the letter J. This isn't incorrect from a ...


10

*Please see addendum at the bottom I have found two possible explanations for the circumflex: (1) to indicate a long vowel and (2) to indicate an ablative. Both of these functions would seem to overlap! Earlier grammarians frequently used the circumflex to indicate a long vowel. A practical grammar of the Latin language; with perpetual exercises in ...


10

Macrons are mainly pronunciation guides, telling which vowels are pronounced long. In some cases they can resolve ambiguities, when two words only differ by the length a vowel. Using them is not necessary, and I would personally consider it better style not to use macrons when writing in Latin, unless there is a special reason. Macrons were not used in ...


9

This is what I’ve been able to find – thanks to Oliver 1966. Oliver 1966 (in footnote 42) mentions two documents important to us, both of them most likely were schoolbook texts: A fifth-century fragment from Virgil (text number 11 in Cavenaile Corpus papyrorum Latinarum); a leaf from a parchment codex of Juvenal (sixth century AD) – it is text number 37 ...


9

The Romans actually didn't use diacritical marks for the most part. I understand that this question was asked based off of a comment made on a post (which was answered by myself). In my response, I used two diacritical marks: the acute accent (Á) and the macron (ā). These marks are used by modern Latinists to distinguish between long and short vowels, with ...


7

There is no difference between “unâ horâ” and “una hora” in this context Lapis descendit ab A ad B unâ horâ. Lapis descendit ab A ad B una hora. In the context of comparing these two sentences, there is no difference between “unâ horâ” and “una hora”. They mean the same thing (and should be pronounced the same way): they are purely orthographical ...


7

In that particular example sentence, no. In general, yes. The circumflex used by some authors to indicate long vowels. I prefer to use the macron: hōra versus hōrā. Some ancient inscriptions used an "apex", a diacritic similar to the modern acute: hórá. Hōra with a short a is unambiguously nominative, "a time" or "an hour". While hōrā with a long a is ...


7

This has been referred to as the Neo-Latin Orthography. An example of a grammar written with this type of orthography is An Introduction to the Latin Tongue by G. N. Wright. Concerning the use of these diacritics, the following is from a dissertation, "Accent Notation in the Classical Languages and its Influence on Lithuanian Accent Notation" by Mindaugas ...


6

Since sumelic gave a good description of spelling conventions, let me focus on translation alone. I don't quite understand how lux astrum is supposed to work. The only way I can make sense of it is that astrum is the plural genitive (longer form astrorum) and the name means "light of stars". This isn't a bad phrase or name, but it's not "bright star". If ...


6

Either as a long vowel or as a short one...but linguists aren't entirely sure which. This root appears in Latin (and other languages) with a long ō, nōmen, but in Greek (and others) with a short o, ónoma. So it's not entirely clear whether the PIE vowel was long or short. We know it was one or the other, but there's not a consensus on which one. One theory ...


5

In my opinion, you should not try to "improve" the text acciording to your own whims, but represent the text as it is. This means keeping the ampersands and accents as they are. To expand, the grave and the circumflex were used not primarily as length markers, but to provide some measure of grammatical disambiguation. In particular, although the ...


3

The linked entry in “the free dictionary” has the lemma as “nō̆-men-“, but then proceeds to claim “oldest form *h1no(h3)-mn̥”. If *h1no(h3)-mn̥ is Proto-Indo-European (PIE) what language is nō̆-men- supposed to be? Surely not Latin? If not, what then is "oldest form" supposed to mean? The “Leiden school”, as exemplified by de Vaan’s etymological dictionary, ...


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