29 votes
Accepted

Why "ex nihilo" instead of "e nihilo"?

That's actually not a rule. ab and ex can lose their consonant, but in fact it's far more common for them not to. Check out Lewis and Short's entries on them: ex/e ex always before vowels, and ...
cmw's user avatar
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21 votes
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Can "ee" appear in Latin?

First, Galilaee sounds right. See this question about the vocative of Gnaeus for details. There are situations where one finds -ee- in Latin without the first e belonging to ae. What I found is not ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
16 votes
Accepted

The Latin word “Have” rather than “Ave” as a translation of the Greek word Χαῖρε?

It's an alternate form of ave; the L&S entry gives a couple of examples. Presumably this form arose through hypercorrection: since h was generally not pronounced in popular speech, confusion ...
TKR's user avatar
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15 votes

Latin ligature "qz"?

I would say that is a common abbreviation for "-que". Maybe you could find useful Cappelli's Dizionario di Abbreviature latine (a very detailed repertory of latin abbreviations). Take a look here. ...
qwertxyz's user avatar
  • 2,886
14 votes

The Latin word “Have” rather than “Ave” as a translation of the Greek word Χαῖρε?

There is a longstanding view that the interjection ave is not the imperative of the verb aveo “to long for”, but is a loan from Punic ḥawe (tentative vocalisation), the imperative of the Semitic verb ...
fdb's user avatar
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14 votes
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In Judith in Vulgate, why does Jerome transliterate the name "Arphaxad" with 'ph', but he transliterates "Holofernes" with an 'f'?

Both of these names are older than the Book of Judith, and come from different places. Arphaxad is a transcription of Hebrew אַרְפַּכְשַׁד (ʔarpakšad), which appears in Genesis: a minor character who'...
Draconis's user avatar
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14 votes
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When did the silencing of 'h' start?

Before the late Republic Already in Republican inscriptions we find people leaving off H's, as in Oratia for Horatia, or adding them where they don't belong, as in havet for avet. During this time, ...
Draconis's user avatar
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13 votes
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Why sequundus > secundus?

Secundus is regular, eqvus isn't There's a sound change called the "Boukólos Rule", which started back in Proto-Indo-European. When labiovelar consonants (like /kʷ/ and /gʷ/) appeared next ...
Draconis's user avatar
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13 votes
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Conquering darkness by science

The macron (the bar over the a) is a modern reading aid, not a compulsory orthographic convention. It's not usually written outside of dictionaries, grammar, and text editions prepared specifically ...
Cairnarvon's user avatar
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12 votes
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Variations on the diminutive: -olus and -ulus

A word search confirms that -olus is used instead of -ulus after a vowel. A Perseus search for words ending in -olus reveals (among a few false positives, like malevolus) that every diminutive form ...
brianpck's user avatar
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12 votes

Can "ee" appear in Latin?

The Vulgata is full with proper nouns having double -ee, specially as endings (e.g. Bersabee, Phacee, Osee). I imagine you are not particularly interested in these. Below are all the other words I ...
luchonacho's user avatar
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12 votes
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When is "ei" a diphthong?

Very few Latin words contain "ei" as a diphthong. Some possible examples are deinde, dein, deinceps, rei, spei, and in fact, the pronoun ei (but not always). The exact list of examples ...
Asteroides's user avatar
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12 votes
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What is Plautus’s pun about frustum and frustrum?

I wrote a longer answer to this on the English language stack exchange, but in the migration process it got deleted. Shorter answer: the quote is "ne sis frustra" from Plautus's play Miles Glorius ...
S Conroy's user avatar
  • 236
12 votes
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Æ ligature – the definitive answer

When it comes to Latin, 'æ' is the same as 'ae', at least when in the diphthong. When the vowels are in different syllables, as in aer, then 'æ' is not used. You could see this so that 'ae' is such a ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
11 votes

Did the Romans confuse a long vowel with two short ones?

Well, there is some fairly simple evidence that a sequence of two identical short vowels could in some cases be treated as equivalent to a single long vowel, namely that the former can contract into ...
TKR's user avatar
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11 votes
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Use of ß (“eszett”) in Latin text

The modern German roman-type ß was developed at the end of the 19th century as an analogue of the blackletter ß, which was a ligature of ſ and z (which is reflected in its name) that had slowly ...
Wrzlprmft's user avatar
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11 votes
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Is there a word for a typo?

1. Mendum Mendum corresponds exactly to this sense: Gaffiot mendum,¹⁴ ī, n., faute, erreur [dans un texte]mendum,¹⁴ ī, n., faute, erreur [dans un texte] : ; Att. 13, 23, 2 Lewis&Short ...
Luc's user avatar
  • 2,292
11 votes
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Why is it "dare" and not "dāre" when most first conjugation verbs spell like "amāre"?

The story, as often, has to do with Proto-Indo-European laryngeals. Both these verbs had a laryngeal as the last consonant of the root: *deh₃-, *steh₂-. All the forms in Latin are based on the zero ...
TKR's user avatar
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11 votes
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How can I translate a slogan "pain is temporary, glory eternal!" to Latin correctly?

A well-known Latin translation of a Greek aphorism is Ars Longa, Vita Brevis Art is long, life is short. If you use that as a model, you could do something very similar: Dolor brevis, Gloria Longa ...
Adam's user avatar
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10 votes

Why was Z used in digraphs?

Note that the letter Z has been associated with affricate sounds like [ts] for a very long time. Ancient use of "Z" for affricate sounds Zeta in Classical Attic Greek is thought to have ...
Asteroides's user avatar
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10 votes
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Variation in the spelling of word-final M

I'm afraid my answer is the boring one: free variation, based on the amount of space available. The tilde originally arose purely as an abbreviation: instead of writing an n or m in line with the ...
Draconis's user avatar
  • 64.6k
10 votes

Do Aeolic and Ancient Greek have other examples of τ/π (πέντε / πέμπε)?

This phenomenon isn't confined to the voiceless stops τ/π, but also involves their voiced and aspirated counterparts, δ/β and θ/φ. So there are pairs like Δελφοί / Βελφοί "Delphi", θήρ / φήρ "wild ...
TKR's user avatar
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10 votes

In the "Pater Noster" prayer why is 'panem nostrum' sometimes "quotidianum" and other times "cotidianum"?

Quotidianum and cotidianum are simply two different ways to spell the same word. This word belongs to a group of words that can be spelled with either a QU or a C, which includes cum and quom. These ...
Figulus's user avatar
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10 votes
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Ancient Greek: how worried do I need to be about "long" and "short" accents?

I don't seem to recall seeing many of these "short" and "long" diacritics in Wiktionary. Are they actually Ancient Greek in origin (I mean, added by Aristophanes of Byzantium, or ...
Draconis's user avatar
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9 votes
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-NL- and -LL- in Classical Latin

Check out the Epigraphic Database Heidelberg. It thankfully allows you to search words, which will allow you to look at deeper results. From a cursory search, though it seems that conl- is earlier, ...
cmw's user avatar
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9 votes
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Why was Z used in digraphs?

Archaic and Classical Latin First of all, the letter Z has never been common in Archaic and Classical Latin, for a number of reasons, primarily because there was no such phoneme (see more on ...
Alex B.'s user avatar
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9 votes

In Judith in Vulgate, why does Jerome transliterate the name "Arphaxad" with 'ph', but he transliterates "Holofernes" with an 'f'?

One possible avenue is that Jerome is hearing a difference in the original Hebrew/Aramaic. In Hebrew, Arphaxad is spelled אַרְפַּכְשַׁד. The פַּ has a dagesh, which means that it is pronounced as a ...
cmw's user avatar
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9 votes

Understanding the spelling deviation from the scripture in the title of a sundial nearby a Catholic church in Moscow

It's hard to tell for sure from the image, but couldn't that just be the stroke of an A, with the rest faded or somehow gone missing? There is a word Umbri, but it has to do with the ancient people by ...
cmw's user avatar
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