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9 votes
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Why νώ (rather than νῶ) from νόω? (Greek)

Philomen Probert (Wolfson College, Oxford) writes that "[A] nominative/accusative dual ending in ω always has an acute, never a circumflex, if accented on the final syllable, regardless of ...
Alex B.'s user avatar
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6 votes
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Is visne > vin unique?

Weiss writes that "The interrogative enclitic particle -ne becomes -n in Plautus when apocope produces an acceptable coda" (p. 147, footnote 79), i.e. *-Vsn- > *-V ̅n- (I.B.8.b, p. 169). He ...
Alex B.'s user avatar
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6 votes
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When to use -ris vs. -re as a passive verbal ending

I don't have precise figures for frequency, but G&L §1301b say that it is very common in earlier prose, less common in later: In the second Singular, passive, in all tenses of the Present stem, ...
cmw's user avatar
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6 votes

Why νώ (rather than νῶ) from νόω? (Greek)

As I noted in comment above, Kühner–Blass did not provide an explanation for the acute in νώ. For κανοῦν, on the other hand, they do note that the variable accentuation ὄστεον ~ *ὀστέον (> ὀστοῦν) was ...
Nick Nicholas's user avatar
5 votes
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When did unsyncopated forms become archaic?

Manu Leumann's Lateinische Laut- und Formenlehre (Munich 1977) groups the contraction of -āvis- to -ās- in forms like amāstī and amāssem together with the contraction of -āver- to -ār- in forms like ...
Asteroides's user avatar
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4 votes

Why does the contraction rule ε+εν -> ειν apply to the formation of λύειν?

λύω is a thematic verb—its root is λυ-, but its present stem includes the thematic vowel: λυ-ε/ο-. This vowel merged into the -ω of the first-person ending before the development of the later ...
Cairnarvon's user avatar
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4 votes

An unambiguous example of 'īt'

I found two examples of it followed by a vowel but scanning long in all of Catullus, Ovid, and Vergil. Here are examples with context to show that perfect is likely: Cuspis Echionio primum contorta ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
4 votes

Can I contract with an irregular perfect stem in v?

V can be lost when it acts as a perfect "suffix" (not found in the present stem) Cser 2016 gives the rule that -v- cannot be lost when it is "part of the lexical makeup of the verb"...
Asteroides's user avatar
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4 votes

Is visne > vin unique?

I know of 2 others off the top of my head. satin from satisne Plautus, Amphitruo 604: quas, malum, nugas? satin tu sanus es? Cicero, De officiis 3.73: quid ergo? satin est hoc, ut non ...
cnread's user avatar
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4 votes
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What is the uncontracted form of "κεῖμαι"? (Greek)

The verb κεῖμαι isn't a contract verb like θεάομαι or ἡγέομαι (or a 'regular' verb like λύω); it's an athematic verb like τίθημι, δίδωμι, or ἵημι, but deponent. So, the circumflex isn't showing ...
cnread's user avatar
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3 votes

Are there iota or hypsilon contract verbs?

There are certainly verbs whose stems end (or used to end) in -i- and -u-, but what would contraction with a following stem vowel mean? "Contraction" here should be expected to result in a rising ...
varro's user avatar
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3 votes
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Can I contract with an irregular perfect stem in v?

I think this is not normally done, except if the perfect stem ends on -ev/iv/av-, because only then does one get the familiar contracted sequences -esti/isti/asti. The sequence -usti would look too ...
Cerberus's user avatar
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2 votes

Why νώ (rather than νῶ) from νόω? (Greek)

To follow up on my remark to @alex, the answer may be as simple as the -ώ being carried over from uncontracted -ο stems ending in -ώ. The fact that the dual was less used than other forms might make ...
varro's user avatar
  • 4,698
2 votes

Can I contract with an irregular perfect stem in v?

The other answers explain the "what" very well; I wanted to add a bit on the "why". According to Brent Vine (in Klein's Handbook of Comparative and Historical Indo-European Linguistics): These [...
Draconis's user avatar
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