It's true that in Classical Latin, ille is a demonstrative pronoun (corresponding to that), not an article; indeed, articles as we know them in English do not exist in Classical Latin. However, that's not the entire story.
Ille in Classical Latin
The meaning of ille in Classical Latin is not so narrow as to exclude its use in these book titles. Allen and ...
The subject is latus. Definition 6 in OLD is most relevant here:
6 (of solid objects, usu. w. abl.) To be bathed or soaked (in a fluid specified or implied), run, stream, overflow, etc.)
For comparison, there's Ovid Metamorphoses 9.57-58:
vix tamen inserui sudore fluentia multo
bracchia, vix solvi duros a corpore nexus.
...arms streaming (with) ...
Futurum est is a future active periphrastic form. It is built from futurum, the future active participle of sum (here in the neuter), which by itself means "going to be, about to be". With the addition of est, it means "It is going to be", or in the translation you quote, "It will come to pass".
This is most certainly a Hebraism. Compare to 2 Sam 7:14:
ego ero ei in patrem et ipse erit mihi in filium
In the Hebrew, we have:
אֲנִי֙ אֶהְיֶה־לּ֣וֹ לְאָ֔ב וְה֖וּא יִהְיֶה־לִּ֣י לְבֵ֑ן
Note the duplication of the "לּ֣" preposition, which is alternatively translated with a dative and with in + accusative. I am not an expert in Hebrew, and cannot ...
Let me offer a translation attempt piece by piece.
My translations are not perfectly literal, but the way I build it up should clarify what it each Latin word does.
I reordered the words to make the organization clearer.
It has proven quite useful to try to identify the core clause and expand little by little in both languages at the same time.
Nondum pinus ...
You are confusing two words:
The noun medium means "center".
The adjective medius means "central".
In this idiom one goes into "central things".
The word res is feminine (the singular nominative and plural accusative happen to look alike), so the adjective has to be in feminine plural accusative: medias.
If you were to use the noun medium instead, you ...
You are correct to say that this is not a 'literal' translation. Turba is a feminine singular noun, and exultet is rightly singular. I'm not sure coro is the right word, though. Interestingly, turba made it into Spanish, but apparently with a decidedly negative connotation. In Classical Latin, turba also meant "mob", but could be used more neutrally, such as ...
This is the big question! Genitives can be either subjective or objective, and sometimes it's impossible to know which one a genitive is.
Subjective genitives are the subject of the genitive. If this were a subjective genitive, it would mean more "Christ's love", i.e. the love that Christ has and gives.
Objective genitives are the object of the genitive. (...
The verb est is omitted but implied. The motto is taken from the start of Psalm 27 (or 26):
Dominus illuminatio mea et salus mea; quem timebo?
Dominus protector vitae meae; a quo trepidabo?
The Lord is my source of light and my salvation; whom shall I fear?
The Lord is the protector of my life; by whom shall I be made to tremble?
Putting in the omitted ...
As @Cerberus says, it's an unusual but valid translation.
I think, however, it becomes clearer when one adds the beginning of the paragraph, so that it reads:
There is a saying much usurped of late, That Wisedome is acquired, not by reading of Books, but of Men. Consequently whereunto, those persons, that for the most part can give no other proof of ...
Forgive me if I'm missing something, but:
I think your issue here may be with the English rather than the Latin. To say that something "was wont to do" something ("wont" with an o and no apostrophe rather than "want" with an a) is an archaic way to say that it "was used to doing" something or "used to do" something.
So rather than desire or privation, the ...
A very literal translation:
Whence it comes that the beginning which they see natural things possess, they attach to substances.
A more natural translation:
This is why they ascribe to substances the same beginning that they see natural things possess.
Unde is strictly speaking a relative meaning "whence, from which place". But Latin often ...
"Art for the Sake of Art"
This phrase, quite conveniently, uses the same word order in both English and Latin.
Ars, artis (artium) is a third-declension feminine noun. It can mean "art" in the sense of paintings and sculptures, but can also be more abstract, like the "art" of writing (i.e. the skill and experience required to be ...
Recte far more often means "rightly." As Lewis & Short puts it:
Trop., rightly, correctly, properly, duly, suitably, well, advantageously, accurately (very freq. in all periods and styles):
They then cite a huge paragraph of examples.
The rest is just idiom. It does indeed mean "you rightly remind me," especially given the rest of the context, ...
You are right that cum...tum can be correlated to mean something like "as...so," but by extension this can be used for "X and especially Y." In fact, the description of this usage corresponds pretty exactly to what Lewis and Short describes in meaning (3):
3 As correlative with a preceding cum, introducing particular after a universal or ...
Both the Greek "gnothi" and Latin "nosce" indicate a process; see Lewis & Short, point I:
from the root gno; Gr. γιγνώσκω, to begin to know, to get a knowledge of, become acquainted with, come to know a thing (syn.: scio, calleo).
I always struggle with the translation "know" because it's actually better to say "get to know / recognize yourself" as ...
You need the subordinate idea ('to resist to the death') to be cast into the future (because the confederates didn't bind themselves to have resisted earlier or to be resisting right now). Normally, you'd say obstrinxerunt se usque ad mortem xxxuros esse, where xxx is the (stem of the) future active participle of the verb resistere. However, resistere is one ...
It's because the verb in each clause of that sentence isn't really est: it's factum est, a compound verb form that combines a present tense of the verb 'to be' and the perfect (past) participle of the verb 'to do/make' (or 'to become/happen').
If it helps, think of an English clause such as 'the picture has fallen': it uses the present tense 'has' but this, ...
malo here is the first-person singular active indicative form of malle, which means “I prefer”. It has nothing to do with either malus “bad” (or, for that matter, malum “apple”). I believe that the verb is a contraction of maius “better” and velle “to want”.
EDIT: Lewis & Short says that it's actually from magis "more" + velle.
I think the intention is that opera is a singular ablative of the feminine noun opera, not a form of opus.
Among other things, opera means "work".
Starting with the other words, Sator Arepo tenet rotas means "the sower Arepo has/holds wheels".
Adding an ablative to describe circumstances, we get something like "the sower Arepo has/holds wheels for (the ...
This is a deponent verb.
Both the normal contemplare and the deponent contemplari exist and mean roughly the same thing.
I have the impression that the deponent one is more common, but the details surely depend on the era and author.
The deponent verb has passive forms but active meaning, and therefore the passive perfect participle has active meaning too.
The ea (= eā) modifies causa, using the very common adjective–preposition–object of preposition arrangement: 'for this reason.'
The forte is from the noun fors, 'chance' (not the adjective fortis, 'strong, brave'); so the ablative/adverbial form means 'by chance.'
This kind of metonymy is very common in Latin.
For a simple example, vir mortuus is literally "a dead man" but can also mean "the death of a man".
This is somewhat similar to how summus mons can be "the highest mountain" and "the peak (= the highest part of a mountain)".
The point is that reading very literally can ...
I think you've basically answered your own question. The literal translation you give is correct but is extremely unidiomatic English; the Douay-Rheims translation preserves the sense of the Latin but expresses it in idiomatic English. There's really no other option.
Placing the main point of a question in a subordinate clause is something Latin does ...
It is a bit odd that Hobbes should translate nosce as "read". However, it becomes clear from the context that by "read" he means roughly the same as "know", i.e. "understand". So I think it is reasonable enough.
What remains to be explained is why he chose "read". Perhaps he did so because the expression "read someone" as in "understand someone's character" ...
Cum...tum can also just be a way of saying 'not only...but also (instead of non solum/tantum...sed etiam) or, as here, since it corresponds to τε...καί in the Greek, 'both...and' (instead of et...et).
'Into other matters' (ceteris de rebus) corresponds to τά...ἄλλα in the Greek; in the English, it looks as though 'withal' is meant to cover ceteris de rebus ...
For the first part: the two are equivalent. I like "the farmer Galba" better, but either is correct; it's just a matter of style.
For the second part: this is one of the few really weird things in the first declension.
As you know, the usual dative and ablative plural ending is -īs in the first declension. This would give the form fīliīs. But -īs is also ...
Here's a rewording solutis versibus by Daniel Crespin:
Nondum abies ex montibus suis desecta descenderat in aquas fluidas, ut terras alienas adiret : et nulla littora nisi sua hominibus perspecta.
That probably clarifies a lot, especially that suis modifies montibus and that caesa modifies pinus, but here are a couple other notes.
Thomas Swinburne Carr ...
Medias is not a noun but an accusative of the adjective medius (middle or central) in agreement with the plural res. This is standard idiomatic usage, not just for this phrase. A spatial portion is consistently expressed (p. 168) in Latin with an adjective in a way that sounds wrong when taken word-for-word into English:
'The whole of,' 'the middle of,'...