Search Results
Search type | Search syntax |
---|---|
Tags | [tag] |
Exact | "words here" |
Author |
user:1234 user:me (yours) |
Score |
score:3 (3+) score:0 (none) |
Answers |
answers:3 (3+) answers:0 (none) isaccepted:yes hasaccepted:no inquestion:1234 |
Views | views:250 |
Code | code:"if (foo != bar)" |
Sections |
title:apples body:"apples oranges" |
URL | url:"*.example.com" |
Saves | in:saves |
Status |
closed:yes duplicate:no migrated:no wiki:no |
Types |
is:question is:answer |
Exclude |
-[tag] -apples |
For more details on advanced search visit our help page |
When asking which choice (case, tense, mood etc.) is grammatical in a given situation, use this tag.
6
votes
Ablative of Description in Cicero
If I interpret you correctly, you're saying that there appears to be a sort of syntax-meaning mismatch involved here: on the one hand, as you point out, the syntax clearly forces us to interpret the n …
8
votes
Accepted
Is "necesse est tibi esse placidus" valid classical Latin?
According to the agreement system of Classical Latin, I'd only expect to find these two options:
necesse est tibi esse placidum (cf. Quod si civi Romano licet esse Gaditanum (Cic. Balb. 29))
neces …
3
votes
Analysis of sentence "hunc Dātamēs vīnctum ad rēgem dūcendum trādit Mithridātī"
As pointed out by Kingshorsey, your analysis of this sentence is correct. Unfortunately, the Wikipedia article classifies your example from Nepos under the wrong descriptor ("The gerundive after ad ca …
7
votes
Why use nominative in Coniugatio periphrastica passiva?
The answers given by Tony, Kingshorsey, and Joonas are correct and should be enough for learners of Latin. However, it is true (and interesting!) that, from a linguistic/philological point of view, th …
8
votes
2
answers
630
views
On the (typical?) ambiguity of "Porta clausa est"
It is often said that Porta clausa est can have two readings depending on the categorial nature of the participle: verbal (cf. clauditur/clausa est) or adjectival (cf. clausa est/clausa fuit), which …
6
votes
2
answers
467
views
What is the grammatical "logic" of impersonal constructions like "Me non solum piget stultit...
What is the grammatical "logic" of the impersonal construction with psychological verbs like pudet, piget, paenitet, taedet, miseret? (here is a short descriptive characterization of so-called “psych …
0
votes
What is the grammatical "logic" of impersonal constructions like "Me non solum piget stultit...
Charo's question has reminded me of this old post of mine, where I was asking for an explanation of the "peculiar" grammar of the impersonal me pudet construction. This question can be divided into tw …
4
votes
Which preposition should be used with contrario and why?
This is just a follow-up post to Sebastian's answer, which is correct for Classical Latin. It could be useful to add that the expression a contrario (often used as part of argumentum a contrario) come …
11
votes
Accepted
Why is accusative pronoun "te" used in this construction?
These two sentences involve different analyses, which can be shown by using the following test: replacement of the infinitive (clause) by the neuter pronoun hoc. In the first example the infinitival c …
4
votes
Accepted
Why is "ad eum" and not a dative pronoun used in this sentence?
I agree with cmw that it is useful to compare the predicative frame of scribere with that of mittere. Let's start with the "easier" case, i.e. the one of the verb mittere. In his Oxford Latin Syntax ( …
3
votes
Accepted
When can the gerund take an object?
A good discussion and summary of this interesting question can be found in this work: VESTER, ELSELINE (1991). "Reflections on the gerund and gerundive". In Robert Coleman (ed.). New Studies in Latin …