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Questions tagged [accusative]

For questions about the accusative case.

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Example request: accusative neuter nouns in any classical prose text

Is anyone able to provide me with about five sentences from any Latin classical text (one or more), excluding poetry or plays, where a NEUTER noun (any) is unambiguously employed in the accusative as ...
Harry's user avatar
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Should these "vellus" be "vellerum"?

I read the following text in the book Método de Latín I by Santiago Segura Munguía, published by the University of Deusto (emphasis mine on the words that cause me difficulty): Multas fabulas a ...
Charo's user avatar
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Is this construction "accusativus cum infinitivo"?

In chapter XXI, lines 115-116, of Lingua latina per se illustrata. Familia Romana (page 167) there is this sentence: Nōn difficile est mātrem Mārcī fallere! Its meaning is clear to me, but I'm not ...
Charo's user avatar
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5 votes
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Why is "ad eum" and not a dative pronoun used in this sentence?

This is a sentence in lines 153-154 of chapter XVIII of Lingua latina per se illustrata. Familia Romana: Cum pater tuus abest, oportet tē epistulās ad eum scribere. Is there any reason why ad eum (...
Charo's user avatar
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Why is accusative pronoun "te" used in this construction?

In lines 137-138 of chapter XIII of Lingua latina per se illustrata. Familia Romana one can read: Iam necesse est tē dormire. I don't understand why the accusative pronoun tē is used in the above ...
Charo's user avatar
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2 votes
1 answer
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What's the grammatical role of "mille passus" in this sentence?

In chapter XII of the 2003 edition of Lingua latina per se illustrata, one can read the following sentence (lines 93-94): Aemilius in castrīs habitat mīlle passūs ā fīne imperīi. I understand its ...
Charo's user avatar
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8 votes
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What is the difference between "in umerīs" and "in umerōs"?

In chapter 6 of LLPSI, we have the following sentence Syrus et Lēander duōs saccōs in umerīs portant While in chapter 9, we have: Pāstor laetus ovem in umerōs impōnit. Why the ablative in the ...
Sapiens's user avatar
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4 votes
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In Vulgate in Apocalypsis 20:4, why does it say "et regnaverunt cum Christo mille *annis*" (ablative?), rather than "...annos" (accusative)?

In Vulgate in Apocalypsis 20:4, why does it say "et regnaverunt cum Christo mille annis" (ablative? Or is it dative?), rather than "et regnaverunt cum Christo mille annos" (...
FlatAssembler's user avatar
6 votes
3 answers
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Are the following "prep. + accusative"'s used for location?

Keller's Learn to Read Latin says: Prepositions that take the accusative emphasize the idea of motion toward, into, around, and through. Prepositions that take the ablative indicate one of the three ...
Tim's user avatar
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Accusative of Duration of Space

I am working through Jenney's Second-Year Latin and I came across this sentence: Pyrrhus Romanos mille octingentos cepit, eosque summo honore tractavit. It's the first clause that's giving me the ...
Stephen Perencevich's user avatar
7 votes
1 answer
265 views

Use of accusative with operari in Opticae Thesaurus

In al-Haytham's Opticae Thesaurus, the following sentence (discussing what the first book will describe) confuses me: Primum est quod lux per se et colores illuminati operentur in visum aliquam ...
Sam Gallagher's user avatar
6 votes
2 answers
515 views

Unsure why the accusative relative pronoun is used? [Tacitus Annals 2.24]

I hope this is the right place to ask this, and I hope it seems I have done enough research before asking. Basically, I am working my way through translating Tacitus' Annals, and have come across ...
fdvries's user avatar
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Why is "O felicem virum, beatum Ioseph" in the accusative case here?

This is one part of a prayer traditionally said before Mass, in honour of St. Joseph: O felicem virum, beatum Ioseph, cui datum est Deum, quem multi reges voluerunt videre et non viderunt, audire et ...
EestiM's user avatar
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5 votes
0 answers
255 views

Why do so many Latin prepositions of place take the accusative and not the ablative to express location?

When talking about the locative case, Latin grammars generally say that its usage was mostly taken over by the ablative case in Latin. For example: Allen and Greenough say: Relations of Place are ...
Vegawatcher's user avatar
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Why is that which is spoken of expressed as in + ablative?

Vīta est spīrandī mūnere fruī, mors prīvārī. Hoc autem spīrandī mūnus apud plērōsque in bonīs dicitur. Livet er å nyte Guds* åndingsgave; døden å berøves [den]. Denne pustingas gave anses dermed i de ...
Canned Man's user avatar
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6 votes
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Can ‘per’ occur with accusative gerundium?

In my grammar (Samson Eitrem: Latinsk grammatikk, 3rd edition, by Bjørg Tosterud and Egil Kraggerud, Aschehoug, 1996), under § 146 Gerundium, he states that: Akkusativ brukes etter preposisjonene ad ...
Canned Man's user avatar
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Confusion regarding 'esse' + accusative

I am currently learning Latin from the Bloomsbury Latin to GCSE books. In one of the reading passages the following constructions are used: "non cupio rex vester esse. dei signum mittent si me ...
WhatKnaveryIsThis's user avatar
5 votes
3 answers
659 views

Why is *dōna* the plural acc. Instead of *donos* like the rest of the 2nd declensions?

I am currently studying the declensions for nouns (currently on the 2nd one) and saw this difference. amīcōs, fīliōs, agrōs VS dōna
Johhan Santana's user avatar
1 vote
0 answers
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On the (necessary or typical?) relationship between double accusative and causation

I was wondering if there is a syntactic/semantic generalization that can account for the so-called "double accusative" predicative frame in Latin (verbs with person & thing (docere ...
Mitomino's user avatar
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Can valeo be used transitively?

Looking through the entry in Lewis & Strong, I couldn't find any mention of the accusative being used with valeo, except as the object of certain prepositions. However, the following use of magna ...
Expedito Bipes's user avatar
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1 answer
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Verb + esse + predicate nominative

Pueri debent esse boni Habitus vero mediocritatis intelligitur esse liberatio hominis a dispositionibus subiectibilibus Why are boni and liberatio nominative? It seems to me that they ought to be ...
Ali Nikzad's user avatar
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3 votes
2 answers
196 views

Usage of fugio as an idiom to mean forget

I am confused how fugio is used grammatically when it is used idiomatically to mean forget. In Latin the regular word for forget is dedisco (to unlearn). However, usually the Latins used various ...
Tyler Durden's user avatar
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Why does ‘lūdīs’ end in a short syllable in Ov. Ep. Sapph. 16?

In Ovid’s Epistulae 16.152–153, the following two lines are found (‘eligiac couplet’, I believe is the term in English): mṓre tuǽ gentī́s nitidā́ dum nū́da palǽstrā̆    lū́dis et és ...
Canned Man's user avatar
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1 answer
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Why does "Hominem unius libri timeo" use comparativus unius instead of positivus unum?

Why does "Hominem unius libri timeo" use comparativus unius instead of positivus unum? Does it mean "I fear a man of one book (more)"? Or does that unius belong to hominem because ...
oguzalb's user avatar
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Use of accusative instead of ablative with 'pro'

I saw written in a coat of arms "PRO MARE NOSTRVM", but we all know that the preposition "pro" takes ablative, so the right form would be "PRO MARI NOSTRO" wouldn't it? I ...
Ergative Man's user avatar
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"Ego me omnium hominum beatissimum tot annos putabam": Why annos is accusative here?

In the beginners-book "Julia" by Maud Reed we find this sentence: "Non falsa," inquit, "Solon, vir sapiens, dixit. Ego me omnium hominum beatissimum tot annos putabam. Nunc ...
d_e's user avatar
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8 votes
1 answer
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Why "decorem indutus est" instead of "decore indutus est"?

Psalm 92 v. 1 Dóminus regnávit, decórem indútus est: * indútus est Dóminus fortitúdinem, et præcínxit se. The Lord hath reigned, he is clothed with beauty: * the Lord is clothed with strength, and ...
Pascal's Wager's user avatar
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1 answer
861 views

Audire, with accusative or dative?

The verb audire is many times (if not most of the times) found with an accusative. For example, in the Vulgata, 4 Regum, 22:11 says: et audisset rex verba libri legis Domini, scidit vestimenta sua. ...
luchonacho's user avatar
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7 votes
1 answer
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In memoriam: why not "in memoria"?

Consider this usual example of Latin+English: As Wiktionary states, in memoriam literally means "into memory" (memoriam is in accusative case). However, as Wiktionary (above) and Wikipedia state, the ...
luchonacho's user avatar
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6 votes
4 answers
429 views

Why use nominative in Coniugatio periphrastica passiva?

Why do we use the nominative case in this example: Liber legendus est. = The book needs to be read. If liber is a direct object, then why not put it in accusative?
lmc's user avatar
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4 votes
3 answers
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When to use accusative and nominative?

I am having some difficulty figuring out the Latin translation for the following sentences: My favourite animal is a dog. Will dog (canis) be considered as nominative or accusative (canem)? I want a ...
jake dobson's user avatar
6 votes
2 answers
241 views

When are -ns words used with accusative direct objects?

In English, one common generalization is that "-ing" words only take direct objects when they are verb forms, not when they are true adjectives or true nouns. (There are only a few possible exceptions,...
Asteroides's user avatar
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Accusative in genitive relative clause with verb finiebat

I am working on Satyricon, currently chapter 30, and have stumbled upon a passage with a grammar that baffles me: Et quod praecipuē mīrātus sum, in postibus triclīniī fascēs erant cum secūribus ...
Canned Man's user avatar
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6 votes
2 answers
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Why would the prae­po­si­tion "per" ever take an ab­la­tive in­stead of an ac­cu­sa­tive com­ple­ment?

PER + ABL.: Bar­bar­ism, solœ­­cism, or di­a­chron­ic evo­lu­tion? Lewis and Short clear­ly state that per is a prae­po­si­tion whose nor­mal com­ple­ment is in the ac­cusative. With­out hav­ing dol­...
tchrist's user avatar
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1 answer
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Why is the accusative not used in Judges 5:23?

This verse reads: Maledicite terrae Meroz, dixit angelus Domini : maledicite habitatoribus ejus, quia non venerunt ad auxilium Domini, in adjutorium fortissimorum ejus. The context is that of ...
luchonacho's user avatar
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5 votes
2 answers
692 views

Did Latin have any ergative verbs?

An "ergative verb" is a verb that can either take two nouns (a subject and an object) or only one (a subject), where the object of the two-noun form corresponds to the subject of the one-noun form. ...
Draconis's user avatar
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6 votes
4 answers
2k views

Why nominative instead of accusative with verb "sum"?

Recently I've been learning about the accusative case, in/direct objects and in/transitive verbs. In light of this, consider the phrase: Nilus fluvius est I'm interested in the rationale (...
luchonacho's user avatar
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5 votes
1 answer
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Regarding the mode of "terram" in Deuteronomy 28:38

Deuteronomy 28:38 reads: Sementem multam jacies in terram, et modicum congregabis: quia locustæ devorabunt omnia. I think the first phrase before the comma has the following structure (but ...
luchonacho's user avatar
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6 votes
3 answers
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Why is an accusative mode needed?

Consider Deuteronomy 28:30, in the Vulgata: Uxorem accipias, et alius dormiat cum ea. Domum ædifices, et non habites in ea. Plantes vineam, et non vindemies eam. So uxorem, domum, vineam, and eam ...
luchonacho's user avatar
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8 votes
2 answers
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Is "servos" accusative plural in Plautus's "is est servos ipse" and, if that's the case, why does "esse" takes accusative case there?

I have some troubles in understanding the syntax of a sentence from Plautus's Captivi, line 580; I need to add glosses. The sentence is "Nam is est servos ipse, neque praeter se umquam ei servos fuit"....
FerCa's user avatar
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5 votes
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Is there such a thing as the accusativus cum participio (a.c.p)? If not, what is this? (Greek)

This is not a hermeneutics question, but rather, a Greek grammar question inspired by a verse from the Bible. Adverbial clauses are common to English, Ancient Greek, and Latin, and I believe there is ...
ktm5124's user avatar
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17 votes
2 answers
2k views

How do we know that Italian words come from accusatives, not ablatives?

I have been told by several sources that Italian nouns and adjectives that originate from Latin come from accusative forms. Also the final -m is lost and an u becomes o. For example, caro > carnem > ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
13 votes
3 answers
2k views

What is an Adverbial Accusative?

In book II, line 141 of Vergil's Aeneid (shown at the end of the question), my notes describe the first word 'quod' as an 'adverbial accusative', but no explanation as to what that means. So my ...
Cataline's user avatar
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6 votes
1 answer
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Can any verb which means "to go (to somewhere)" be used in a double-accusative construction?

Can any verb which means "to go (to somewhere)" be used in a double-accusative construction? Like dīcō? Can I use any particular verb for "to go" preceded by two accusatives and have the sentence be ...
Caoimhghin's user avatar
6 votes
2 answers
382 views

Is "ire" used correctly here? "Iosaphatum salutem ite."

Can ire be used in this way? "Iosaphatum salutem ite." (I go to Iosephat for shelter.) Furthermore, is the two accusatives correct? This sentence is based on a Sanskrit construction, and I do not know ...
Caoimhghin's user avatar
3 votes
1 answer
12k views

Why is "Bonam Fortunam" the correct way to wish someone good fortune instead of "Bona Fortuna"?

I remember being told this by a Latin teacher, but I have since forgotten the details. Why should I use the accusative case instead of the nominative here?
Aidan's user avatar
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10 votes
1 answer
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When to use the Greek accusative?

The Greek accusative or the accusative of respect (accusativus Graecus or accusativus respectus) is used like the ablative of respect (ablativus respectus). This construction is a loan from Greek, ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
10 votes
1 answer
1k views

Difference between Vocative and Accusative usage

What is the grammatical difference between saying something like Bonam Fortunam (in the accusative) and Bona Fortuna (in the vocative) to another person? I have always heard the former, and I do not ...
Sam K's user avatar
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4 votes
1 answer
801 views

eadem mutata resurgo

What is the role of eadem mutata in this phrase? I'm guessing either neuter plural accusative of extent, or feminine nominative as apposition to an implied ego. The original context of this line is ...
Derpius's user avatar
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16 votes
3 answers
12k views

Happy Birthday and the accusative of exclamation

I'd like to say "Happy Birthday [to you]!" in Latin. I see two possibilities in Traupman's Conversational Latin: Fēlīx nātālis tibi! Fēlīcem nātālem [tibi exoptō]! The first is used in ...
Nathaniel is protesting's user avatar