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17 votes
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Why does Catullus use "odi" instead of "odio" in Catullus 85?

The verb Catullus uses is odisse, not odire (from which you would get an imperative odi). This verb only has forms in the perfect system but the meaning is that of the present system. That is, what is ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
14 votes

Why does Catullus use "odi" instead of "odio" in Catullus 85?

Joonas's answer is entirely correct, but to give a slightly different explanation: Some verbs in Latin are defective. Some of their forms are outright missing, for no obvious reason. For example, the ...
Draconis's user avatar
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10 votes
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How do I know if there's an "invisible yod"?

To my knowledge, the compounds of jaciō are the only words where this complication occurs. And in Imperial Latin, these words frequently scan with a light initial syllable, indicating loss of /j/ and ...
Asteroides's user avatar
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9 votes

Why is omne ablative in Catullus 1?

It's a regular neuter accusative singular form, modifying aevum: ...you alone of the Italians ventured to unroll all of time... The ablative singular form would be omnī. 'Alone (out) of all the ...
cnread's user avatar
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5 votes

Alternative translation of poem 4 from Catullus

You are correct that celerrimus can and should be translated as a noun. Allen & Greenough has a section dedicated to Adjectives used substantively. You don't make it explicit in your question, but ...
brianpck's user avatar
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4 votes
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Sapphic metre in Catullus 51.10

As a first note, the third and fourth lines of a Sapphic stanza tend to be closely connected—it's not uncommon to have a word split between them—so let's add that fourth line in here. tintinant aurēs,...
Draconis's user avatar
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3 votes

Translating "venustiorum" in Catullus 3

The Latin comparative and superlative are often translated as "more/-er" and "most/-est" in English, but not always. Sometimes it's a matter of absolute degree, what in English are ...
cmw's user avatar
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3 votes

Are there linguistic arguments for the claim that "Odi et amo" in Catullus (LXXXV) cannot be simply translated as 'I hate and I love'?

In English any verb which syntactically takes a subject can be reassumed by “do”. “I hate cod but she doesn’t” is perfectly natural even though no actual doing is involved. Indeed one of the puzzles ...
Martin Kochanski's user avatar
2 votes
Accepted

What is libelli doing in Catullus 1

Libelli is in the genitive of quantity, used after a noun of quantity to specify "of what." In addition to strict quantities like libra ("pound"), Latin uses this genitive with ...
brianpck's user avatar
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1 vote

Translating "venustiorum" in Catullus 3

By using the absolute degree venustī, doctī to describe a group of people, we say that they're more beautiful or learnèd than most others. The others may be beautiful or learnèd in their own right, ...
Unbrutal_Russian's user avatar
1 vote

Alternative translation of poem 4 from Catullus

It appears as if celerrimus is adjectival, in apposition to phaselus, but it's often argued that this is a mistake of transcription : that it should in fact have been celerrimum, as the accusative to ...
Tom Cotton's user avatar
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1 vote
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Caesuras in Phalaecian verses

To me the most natural positions for caesuras in hendecasyllabic verse are before either of the consequent short syllables: - - - | u | u - u - u - u. This is similar to how caesuras work in hexameter,...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar

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