8

I only know to say the "there is/are" in latin we use "est/sunt" , but how about when it is part of indirect speech?

E.g

" He/she said that there is (something) "

I'm confuse because it uses "esse" and I think that is little ambigous and I don't know how to construct it with grammatical accuracy.

8

'There is'/'there are' in indirect speech is just esse, as in this passage from Pliny the Younger's letters (1.11.1):

at hoc ipsum scribe, nihil esse quod scribas, vel solum illud unde incipere priores solebant: 'si vales, bene est; ego valeo.'

Yet write this very thing, that there is nothing....

In indirect speech, there's always some risk of a loss of accuracy or introduction of ambiguity. For example, distinctions between the different past tenses (perfect vs. imperfect vs. pluperfect) become lost, all being replaced by a simple perfect infinitive, and 3rd person reflexive pronouns (se, sibi, etc.) might refer to the subject of the main sentence or to the subject of the indirect statement.

1
  • I agree indirect speech is more ambigous especially when we add adjectives e.g " fortem virum esse dixit " but I think it's all depends on the contexts.
    – Vince
    Mar 31 at 23:33

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.