I am reading the Exultet, an ancient Christian chant.
The first two lines are:
Exultet iam angelica turba caelorum,
exultent divina mysteria
In the Spanish translation, these two lines are:
Exulten por fin los coros de los ángeles,
Exulten las jerarquías del cielo,
Regardless of whether you know Spanish or not, notice that the "Exulten" (3rd person, plural, active) is the same in both lines.
Now, if I am correct, exultet is the 3rd person, singular, active of exultare (1st conjugation), whereas exultent is the 3rd person, plural, active. In effect, turba is feminine, and angelica can only be feminine and singular, in agreement with singular exultet. Is this correct?
The main question is, then: would a direct translation of the Latin text into Spanish use singular and plural persons respectively, so that the first line would be something like "Exulta por fin el coro celestial angelical?" where "angelical" is (as in English) an adjective, instead of a noun, like "angel"?
This would be an indication that I should not read both texts as a direct translation, but more of an adaptation, and as such, is not a very useful methodological tool to learn Latin.