This is probably a pretty basic question, but I am new to Latin and am having trouble understanding the subjunctive.
The sentence "Pūgnāverō ut nautam superem" is translated to "I shall have fought in order that I may overcome the sailor" (according to my textbook). I understand that pūgnāverō is active, indicative, future perfect, first person, singular, which so far I would have believed to be translated as "I will have fought (already)." I am confused because my book uses the word "shall," which to me signals that it is subjunctive.
My questions are:
- Am I misunderstanding the way "shall" is used?
- Is this something that only occurs in clauses of purpose, i.e., is this occurring because "superem" is subjunctive?
There is a similar post here, but I feel it does not answer my question.