The usual form of a Latin indicative sentence predicated on a condition is "Si V-ind, V-ind." The "Si V-ind" is the protasis and the "V-ind" is the apodosis. There is also a variant in "Si V-subj." My question is whether you can omit the "si" and shorten it to "V-subj, V-ind." I haven't found any references discussing the acceptability or unacceptability of this grammar, but not being a lexeme, it is hard to search for.
This is inspired by the English subjunctive mood, which can be used in conditions (not to be confused with the conditional mood). It is likely that this English usage was influenced by Latin. Anyway, in extremely formal or archaic English, there are sentences that replace the indicative with the subjunctive and mostly use either "should" and its forms or subject-verb inversion:
- We would not have done that, had we known
- We need to return to the airport, come August
- We're going outside, be it rain or shine
A Latin example to operate on could be "Pecūnia, sī ūtī scīs, ancilla, sī nescīs, domina" meaning "if you know how to use money, money is your slave; if you don't, money is your master". The "est" is omitted as is common. There is a variant on the internet saying "Pecūnia, sī ūtī sciās, ancilla, sī nesciās, domina." But there are only 2 Google hits for "Pecunia, uti scias, serva. Si nescias, domina." What I'm trying to say is the equivalent of "Money is your servant, know you how to use it, else your master, known't you how."
Would "Pecūnia ūtī sciās ancilla nesciās domina" be acceptable written Classical Latin? Otherwise would it be acceptable as spoken Vulgar or later Latin? I seek quotations for this construction.