The Vulgata, in Numbers 5:2-3, says:
[2] Praecipe filiis Israel, ut ejiciant de castris omnem leprosum, et qui semine fluit, pollutusque est super mortuo:
[3] tam masculum quam feminam ejicite de castris, ne contaminent ea cum habitaverint vobiscum.
The equivalent Douay-Rheims verses (in English) say:
[2] Command the children of Israel, that they cast out of the camp every leper, and whosoever hath an issue of seed, or is defiled by the dead:
[3] Whether it be man or woman, cast ye them out of the camp, lest they defile it when I shall dwell with you.
I highlighted the bit I am puzzled about. The two verbs used in the sentence are in third-person plural (-nt, contaminent, habitaverint). Thus, I am puzzled where the "I" comes in the to dwell verb. Wouldn't the "correct" Latin verb be the first person single? Also, the verb seems to be translated as subjunctive future, whereas habitaverint seems to be perfect, either indicative or subjunctive (perhaps depending on the missing accent).
The translation seems to be correct when one looks at the English versions of the verse, where all use first person, and most use present instead of (future) perfect. But I just cannot recognise the person and the tense in the Vulgate.