In Aeneis commentary (left-below) it is written:
Male explicant: armatum virum; sed disiungenda sunt haec duo vocabula, ut disiunxit Tasso quum diceret: Canto l'arini pietose e 'l capitano; si vero arma memorantur, praesertim arma horrentia Martis, necessaria est belli cogitatio.
If I understand correctly, the above rejects wrong interpretation of "arma virumque" which does not divide between the words. like "armed man" or "armatum virum". This seem to suggest, at least theoretically, that the interpretation of armed man is possible. However, I find it rather quite basic grammar to reject that interpretation. Am I wrong in my understanding of the passage, or the interpretation of "armed man" is really possible?