Following on from "Uter vs Uterque"; it is clear that "'uterque' can be translated as 'both [of two]' but it might be better to think of it as 'each [of two]'. The reason is that 'uterque', like 'each' is singular." (Joonas)
I asked about the plural "utrique" = "both". The advice was that "utrique" should be read as "each group" as in "ille et meae et tuae familiae canit. utrisque delectat." = "He sings for both my family and yours. He pleases each group."
But this could be translated as: "He pleases both (families)", could it not?
Here are two further examples:
"data utrique venia, facile Segimero, cunctantius filio, quia Quintilii Vari corpus inlusisse dicebatur."
(Tacitus "Annals" Book 1.71)"Both were pardoned, Segimerus, the son, with some hesitation, because it was said that he had insulted the corpse of Quintillius Varus."
"in novo genere belli novae ab utrisque bellandi rationes reperibantur."
(Caesar "De Bello Civili" 3.50)"In this new kind of war, new methods of managing it, were invented by both (generals)."
In both examples there are two sets of individuals, not groups.
In "Advice From History", I attempted to say: "...and you'll lose both (freedom/ law-and-order)" = "...et utrasque perdetis.", using feminine accusative plural of "uterque" for "libertas" & "salus".
Joonas, naturally, discussed the merits of "utramque" (feminine accusative singular) in the sense of "you will lose each and every one of your privileges i.e. both-in-turn." He revised "et utrasque perdetis" to the neuter form "et utrumque perdes"; (singular/ plural forms of "you" are not relevant to this discussion) the latter, I have no doubt is correct; but, could the former be used just as appropriately?
[this question](https://latin.stackexchange.com/q/11440/79)
.