The way I learned 'uter' and 'uterque' was as follows. 'Uter''Uter' is like the Greek 'πότερος', meaning (in interrogative uses) 'which, of two?' and (in non-interrogative uses) 'either, of two'. I learned to translate 'uterque' into English as 'both', but is this strictly accurate? When it is said that Cicero uses the method of argumentation 'in utramque partem', this clearly does mean that he argues on both sides, but is the more literal translation 'on either side'? If the former is correct, why is partem'partem' singular and not plural?
Joonas Ilmavirta
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