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A sentence in Corderii Colloquia 24,

ille spiritus bonus faxit.

is translated as:

May that good spirit grant it.

How does the pf ind come to have an optative sense here?

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  • 3
    Hi, Toothrot. Can you explain the reasoning behind the edit reversals? I'm not quite sure why they seemed controversial to you. Cheers.
    – cmw
    Commented May 17, 2017 at 16:41
  • @C.M.Weimer, rolling back your edit was unintended, sorry.
    – Toothrot
    Commented May 17, 2017 at 17:02
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    Can you please explain why you are using the abbreviation? It is less clear and I'm genuinely confused why you are making an issue of it.
    – brianpck
    Commented May 17, 2017 at 17:05

2 Answers 2

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It's actually not indicative, but subjunctive. I know Perseus' morph tool parses it as both indicative and subjunctive, but both Gildersleeve and the OLD say it's subjunctive and do not mention anything about it being indicative:

faxo, faxim (where later writers use fecero, fecerim)

The normal perfect indicative of facio was feci, fecisti, fecit (etc.).

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faxim is (according to one theory) the subjunctive (historically: optative) of the old s-aorist; note that Old Latin also had an s-future faxō. There is a rather convoluted discussion of this in Sihler §502.

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