6

A sentence in Corderii Colloquia 24,

ille spiritus bonus faxit.

is translated as:

May that good spirit grant it.

How does the pf ind come to have an optative sense here?

  • 3
    Hi, Toothrot. Can you explain the reasoning behind the edit reversals? I'm not quite sure why they seemed controversial to you. Cheers. – C. M. Weimer May 17 '17 at 16:41
  • @C.M.Weimer, rolling back your edit was unintended, sorry. – Toothrot May 17 '17 at 17:02
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    Can you please explain why you are using the abbreviation? It is less clear and I'm genuinely confused why you are making an issue of it. – brianpck May 17 '17 at 17:05
9

It's actually not indicative, but subjunctive. I know Perseus' morph tool parses it as both indicative and subjunctive, but both Gildersleeve and the OLD say it's subjunctive and do not mention anything about it being indicative:

faxo, faxim (where later writers use fecero, fecerim)

The normal perfect indicative of facio was feci, fecisti, fecit (etc.).

7

faxim is (according to one theory) the subjunctive (historically: optative) of the old s-aorist; note that Old Latin also had an s-future faxō. There is a rather convoluted discussion of this in Sihler §502.

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