I am being driven round the bend by people’s insistence on “playing Horace on original instruments” and I need some way out of the morass.
At school the 3rd declension accusative plural ending was -es and that was that. Rudyard Kipling uses this - maerentes amicos and so on - which I suppose shows that I am a contemporary of Kipling. I need to de-obsolesce, because I am getting tired of asking “what is this genitive singular doing in maerentis amicos?”.
Gildersleeve and Lodge say for vowel stems in i (57.5) that “-is is found frequently in the classical period along with the later termination -es, which supplants -is wholly in the early empire”. They also add that polysyllabic stems in nt are in a very real sense stems in i (54 though their wording is more Victorian than mine).
Now, given that one has to face texts which have intruded the loathsome -is, what are the rules?
My first guess was that one could say simply “anything that has a genitive plural in -ium will have its accusative plural written as -is.
Is this a complete and sufficient rule?