In Catullus 1,

Iam tum, cum ausus es unus Italorum omne aevum tribus explicare cartis dotis, >Iuppiter, et laboriosis.

the only ways to justify 'omne' is

1. you dared as one 'out of all' of the Latin's to explain the time in three scrlls

2. make omne agree with cartis dotis.

These are the only options that make grammatical sense.

Based on what Catullus is trying to say, it makes sense to make omne agree with aevum, even though it doesn't.

Why is omne in ablative?

In Catullus 1,

Iam tum, cum ausus es unus Italorum
omne aevum tribus explicare chartis
doctis, Iuppiter, et laboriosis.

The only ways to justify 'omne' are:

1. You dared as one 'out of all' of the Latins to explain the time in three scrolls.
2. Make 'omne' agree with 'chartis doctis'.

These are the only options that make grammatical sense to me.

Based on what Catullus is trying to say, it makes sense to make 'omne' agree with 'aevum', even though it doesn't.

Why is 'omne' in the ablative?