Deponent verbs are often defined as verbs that have passive forms but active meanings. But how accurate is this typical definition/generalization? It seems clear that this definition applies without problems to deponent verbs like hortor or exhortor, which do have a clear agentive/active meaning. But what about morior, orior or nascor? Can these verbs also be said to have an "active" (?!) meaning? If so, in which sense?
For example, there is a syntactic test that, in terms of usage frequency, can be claimed to distinguish deponent verbs that involve a passive meaning from the ones that encode a more active one: e.g., verbs with a clear/stronger passive meaning like morior, orior and nascor, i.a., can be easily/quite naturally found in Ablative Absolute constructions with a perfect participle, compared to more active verbs like (ex)hortari, which are perhaps not impossible but are by far more infrequent in this usage: cf. Caesare mortuo vs. (?)Caesare suos exhortato (e.g. see this link). An intuitive explanation of this difference in usage (i.e., the former is by far more frequent than the latter) comes to mind: verbs like morior or nascor involve a clear/stronger passive meaning, whereas verbs like (ex)hortor involve an active meaning. Cf. also the related meaning distinction that is involved in auxiliary selection in languages like Italian: typically, change of {state/location} verbs (patient-(derived) subject verbs, i.e. so-called "unaccusative" verbs) select essere 'be', while agentive processes select avere 'have': cf. It. Gianni è morto ('Gianni died') vs. Gianni ha esortato i suoi ('Gianni has exhorted his people').
Could you tell me if there are textbooks of Latin grammar where a more appropriate/accurate definition of deponent verbs is given? Cf. the typical one given above.
I think that TKR hit the nail on the head in his comment below.
TKR: it's an inaccurate description: "active meaning" seems to mean nothing more than "meaning which tends to be expressed with an active verb in modern European languages". To that extent the term may be pedagogically useful, but linguistically it's meaningless, and when one tries to make it meaningful as you have by translating "active" to something like "agentive", the attempt fails.
Many thanks, TKR, for your VERY useful paraphrase, which shows the confusion I alluded to above: the confusing phrase "active meaning" in the typical definition above seems to mean nothing more than "MEANING which tends to be expressed with an ACTIVE verbal FORM in modern European languages". Crucially, notice that ACTIVE here modifies (verbal) FORM, not meaning! That's why the typical definition of deponent verbs above (in particular, its reference to "active meanings") is quite confusing.
By the way, I see some of you think that the typical definition above is "pedagogically useful". Well, I don't think so... (although I admit that many years ago I learned it without questioning it).
Ethan Bierlein provides a very nice descriptive semantic typology of deponent verbs (see his post below), which can be completed with the one found in Pinzin's (2018) PhD thesis Stuck in the Middle (http://dspace.unive.it/bitstream/handle/10579/12877/956151-1197504.pdf?sequence=2 )
Basically, Pinzin tries to justify the morphology of deponent verbs by arguing that the subject is not a true/"deep" external argument, whereby, semantically speaking, it cannot be a prototypical agent, and, syntactically speaking (in formal syntax jargon), is a derived subject. In a sense, following Pinzin, one could then conclude that deponent verbs have middle/passive forms AND middle meanings. In my opinion, this definition can be said to make more sense than the traditional one above (cf. "deponents have passive forms but active meanings"), especially if, {despite appearances/despite my initial (wrong) intuition} (cf. above), the subject of verbs like (ex)hortor is not assigned a prototypical agent role. According to Pinzin (2018: 304), hortari has a meaning component that accounts for the middle/passive morphology. In his own words, the meaning of this verb is: "'x acts in such a way that x has y willing/eager (to do z)’. Such a structure would accommodate for the three objects and would provide a justification for the presence of the Middle morphology" (end quote). Very interesting, indeed! He puts it a bit more technically on page 11: "“the Middle morphology signals the syntactic absence of the external argument in the structure, may that argument be a DOER (v-doP) or an UNDERGOER (v-goP). The Nominative argument, consequently, is always merged in a low position: HOLDER of a state/location, BENEFACTIVE of a further stative event” (end quote). In my opinion, his proposal is very illuminating!