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edit approved Aug 16, 2021 at 20:26
KRyan
edit approved Aug 16, 2021 at 20:26
KRyan
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I am doing some Latin exercises and the sentences are given as the following (by Rosetta Stone):

Puer plus lactis habet quam vir.

Femina plures canes habet quam vir.

Puer plus lactis habet quam vir.

Femina plures canes habet quam vir.

In the first case ("more milk") the object is in the genitive, but in the second case ("more dogs") the object is in the accusative. Why would these two parallel sentences differ in this way?

I am doing some Latin exercises and the sentences are given as the following (by Rosetta Stone):

Puer plus lactis habet quam vir.

Femina plures canes habet quam vir.

In the first case ("more milk") the object is in the genitive, but in the second case ("more dogs") the object is in the accusative. Why would these two parallel sentences differ in this way?

I am doing some Latin exercises and the sentences are given as the following (by Rosetta Stone):

Puer plus lactis habet quam vir.

Femina plures canes habet quam vir.

In the first case ("more milk") the object is in the genitive, but in the second case ("more dogs") the object is in the accusative. Why would these two parallel sentences differ in this way?

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Tyler Durden
Tyler Durden
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How are the objects of comparatives handled grammatically?

I am doing some Latin exercises and the sentences are given as the following (by Rosetta Stone):

Puer plus lactis habet quam vir.

Femina plures canes habet quam vir.

In the first case ("more milk") the object is in the genitive, but in the second case ("more dogs") the object is in the accusative. Why would these two parallel sentences differ in this way?