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Jun 27 at 2:02 comment added cmw You might find the comments and links on this question to be relevant here.
Jun 26 at 20:42 comment added Daniel T Idk wdym "first position" or "comes from a verb." en.wiktionary.org/wiki/%CF%86%CF%8C%CE%B2%CE%BF%CF%82 was always a noun. Then Greek morphotactics forbids "*phobiaislamo" because it's supposed to be "islam + -o- " + phobos + -ia." See where dictionaries put the "-" symbol. Additionally, European languages like to delete a word's suffixes before turning it into a prefix
Jun 26 at 20:23 comment added user15476 @DanielT thank you for the precision, if I understand correctly, since phobia comes from a verb, it should be in first position in Ancient Greek?
Jun 26 at 20:10 comment added Daniel T "misia" (both noun and suffix) is neither Ancient nor Modern Greek. We don't know whether the "i" should metathesize or not into "-misia" "missa" "-misa" or something. "phobia" isn't well-formed Ancient Greek either, but it's Modern Greek and is acceptable because it's very productive in Medical Greek/Latin
Jun 26 at 19:39 comment added Joonas Ilmavirta @Tommas I agree it's a bit odd, but odd and wrong are two very different things. All aspects of language are full of oddities like this. The general rule is that usage trumps logic: whatever is used is de facto correct, with some caveats of course.
Jun 26 at 19:24 comment added user15476 @JoonasIlmavirta My main point is that the words look similar, so I find it odd that one is well formed but the other isn't, but I don't know enough about lexicology
Jun 26 at 19:09 comment added Joonas Ilmavirta @Tommas Do you have examples of -misia in mind that would help justify its use here?
Jun 26 at 18:58 comment added user15476 I am not sure why you consider "judeomisia" to be ill-formed, but "islamophobia" to be well-formed
Jun 26 at 18:23 history answered Daniel T CC BY-SA 4.0