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Mar 16, 2023 at 20:36 comment added Sebastian Koppehel See also my previous question on the use of present vs. perfect subjunctive.
Mar 16, 2023 at 19:20 comment added mike rodent I think I get the gist, and it also seems to be logical, although ever so slightly odd to be using the perfect "I may have fallen" for a future event in a Latin language (I tend to think of French, Italian, etc. as less permissive in this regard than say English, although they obviously have nice, fit-for-purpose conditionals). By some unlikely fluke, I therefore put the right inflection for the protasis even though, as you pointed out, I failed to use the imperfect (which seemed to be my intention). There's probably a fitting Latin expression covering that sort of thing.
Mar 16, 2023 at 18:55 history answered TKR CC BY-SA 4.0