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Apr 2, 2022 at 15:53 history edited Mitomino CC BY-SA 4.0
minor changes & qualification based on comments
Apr 1, 2022 at 13:06 comment added TKR After reading the context I tend to agree (so deleted my comment) -- Aristotle seems to be using τὸ πρῶτον in a technical sense.
Apr 1, 2022 at 1:00 comment added Mitomino This said, I do agree that this particular sentence in Medieval Latin can be said to sound forced or unnatural in Classical Latin.
Apr 1, 2022 at 1:00 comment added Mitomino @TKR The several translations I consulted are quite different from your interpretation ("from which being first corrupted something came"), which is based on the quasi-adverbial reading of primo modifying corrupto. The translations I checked are all coherent with the following reconstructed structure whereby primum (i.e. τὸ πρῶτον) would be the antecedent and the true subject of the infinitival clause: necesse (est) [primum [ex quo corrupto aliquid factum est] non sempiternum esse]. That's why I advocated for an incorporated antecedent analysis (primum>primo).
Mar 30, 2022 at 11:37 comment added Ali Nikzad I could find the parallel constructions in Greek.
Mar 30, 2022 at 11:33 comment added Ali Nikzad Great. I appreciate your help.
Mar 30, 2022 at 11:22 vote accept Ali Nikzad
Mar 30, 2022 at 2:00 history answered Mitomino CC BY-SA 4.0