Timeline for Are there minimal pairs between the acute and circumflex accent?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
5 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Dec 16, 2021 at 17:56 | comment | added | TKR | There's a rule of Greek accentuation that says that when the vowel of a penult is long and accented, its accent depends on the length of the vowel in the ultima: if that's short, the penult is circumflexed; if it's long, the penult has an acute. So the circumflex in μῆτις suffices to show that the ι is short. μή-τις is an exception to the rule because it's really a sequence of two words, which is why the length of the ι has to be explicitly marked. | |
| Dec 16, 2021 at 17:43 | history | edited | Canned Man | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
Deleted erroneous assumption to clarify.
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| Dec 16, 2021 at 17:41 | comment | added | Canned Man | Oh, it is‽ I assumed that when it was marked as short in one of the words and not the other, it was long. Are there any conventions I need to be aware of here that are at play? | |
| Dec 9, 2021 at 17:27 | comment | added | TKR | The vowel in the final syllable is short in both words, so it certainly qualifies in that sense. (Though since μή τις is transparently composed of two words and the ancient Greeks didn't use word spacing, it's hard to say if they would have considered it one word or two.) | |
| Dec 9, 2021 at 15:31 | history | answered | Canned Man | CC BY-SA 4.0 |