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Timeline for Can 'in-' mean both 'in' and 'no'?

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Aug 23, 2019 at 23:56 comment added Mitomino Ok, sumelic, many thanks for your helpful comment and judgement!
Aug 23, 2019 at 20:24 comment added Asteroides @Mitomino: "without those things having been accomplished by ___" seems weirdly phrased, but not very unacceptable to me. But I can't say whether it could take an eventive reading. As I mentioned recently in the comment about "un_ed by" constructions, I'm not sure that the presence of a "by" prepositional phrase referring to a semantic agent is perfectly correlated with the distinction between verbal (or eventive) vs. adjectival (or resultative) readings.
Aug 23, 2019 at 20:13 comment added Mitomino Ok, sumelic! Thanks! By the way, as a native speaker of English, could you tell me if it is possible in English to say the following eventive (i.e., "verbal") passive: "without those things having been accomplished (by someone)"? In any case, the prefix in- gives an adjectival reading in Latin. To put in Embick's (2004) terms, only a resultative reading would be possible here (crucially, not an eventive/"verbal" one, i.e., the one that involves a (null or explicit) syntactic agent).
Aug 23, 2019 at 19:54 comment added Mitomino Nice pair! There appear to be many examples of Ablative absolutes with this verbal adjective. E.g., infectis iis (Caes. B. C. 1, 33) is translated as "without having accomplished those things" (involving a syntactically null AGENT: cf. "without PRO having accomplished those things"). However, I was wondering if this Lat. adjectival passive would be better rendered as "without those things accomplished", i.e., as involving a RESULTATIVE reading of the participle, where there is NO syntactic agent involved (following Embick's (2004) famous tripartite classification of participles).
Aug 23, 2019 at 18:52 history edited Asteroides CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 23, 2019 at 18:31 history answered Asteroides CC BY-SA 4.0