11

A word for “house” is probably the easy part: aedes, -ium, f. literally means “rooms.” Only fits if your dwelling has more than one room, although, if it has only one, you could call it aedis. domicilium and habitatium are pretty generic terms However, I am partial to tectum (roof) in the metonymical sense, which I think emphasises the function of a living ...


9

Yes, the meaning is different. αὐτός, when used in the nominative, is an emphatic pronoun meaning "he himself". So your second sentence would mean "He himself says...", with some implicit contrast such as "and not anyone else". The oblique cases of αὐτός, however, are most often unemphatic and are the most common way of expressing the third-person pronoun "...


7

An urbs is a city, an oppidum is a town. It is quite common to use urbs to refer specifically to Rome, and the linked dictionary entry even says that oppidum is used for other cities than Rome. You could say that urbs is a capital and oppidum is a regular city. There are a number of ways to phrase and see it, but the crux is: urbs is bigger (in size or ...


5

All three are fine! While there might be a slight difference in nuance, I would say that you can freely use any of them that feels best in that situation. There just turns out to be many ways to express the same things, and there are a great many other verbs for similar purposes like ingredi and intrare. There are examples in Lewis and Short: You can use ...


5

Also, the Nicean creed uses Lumen instead of Lux (Deum de Deo, Lumen de Lumine) to refer to the light of God, implying a more metaphorical meaning to Lumen, rather than the strict sense of light.


5

I did a search for lux and lumen in the Latin dictionaries at Latinitium https://www.latinitium.com/latin-dictionaries?t=lsn27193,do307 They seem to overlap in meaning, with lux being used more often for daylight and lumen being used more often for lamps and torches. The entry for Doderlein at the bottom of the page has examples where they are used in ...


4

My Latin-Dutch dictionary (Muller-Renkema, 1970) lists the debauchery, without the macron, as first lemma, saying it’s related to lŭtum, mud. The sacrifice, with the macron, is related to lūstro, which in itself has two meanings. illuminate, derived from a reconstructed form leuk-s-trom purify, derived from a reconstructed form lŏu(e)s-trom cf. ἐ-λοϜεσ-σα ...


3

The middle sound in min?mē is sometimes called the sonus medius: it's the result of vowel reduction on unstressed medial short u, which happened before the sound change o > u. Based on descriptions in grammarians, it may have been pronounced [ɨ] in Classical times; it eventually merged into short i. But earlier and more archaizing writers often spelled it u,...


3

As adjectives, the main distinction is that senex is said of a person, while senilis is said of things belonging or relative to such a person. A simple example could be senex vir seniles cogitationes cogitat, an old man has senile thoughts/the thoughts of an old man/thoughts typical of their age. The best attested example I can find is: Quae bello est ...


3

Plater and White, in A Grammar of the Vulgate, after praising Jerome's "skillful and masterly workmanship" of his translation of the Hebrew, point out on Page 7, "Jerome has the tantalizing habit of translating the same Hebrew word by different Latin equivalents." Alas, I can find no entries for puluis or fauilla in the Latin index of that work. Perhaps ...


2

In Lewis and Short I find an interesting sub-meaning for "favilla": B. Transf.: “salis,” powder of salt, Plin. 31, 7, 42, § 90.—* But I can't actually find that in Pliny. favilla as powder would work, wouldn't it? Gaffiot gives the reference as Plin. 31, 90; and another non-cinder meaning in Propertius 1, 9. Is Jerome always consistent in how he ...


2

I noticed that nobody has answered this yet, so I decided to make an attempt myself (despite also being a student). Apologies for any mistakes, this is my first time answering a question on here. I am not aware of any way to specifically say "are too strong", but I think the sentence below has a similar sense using nimium. I also used potentiae rather than ...


1

Before asking the question, I didn't explore the LSJ for πέρας and τέλος linked in TKR's comment in detail. After reading them carefully, I can self-answer. Πέρας means an "end" spatially; some of its more general meanings may be used for time, but it's too rare. Τέλος is also "a length of time (or space)", but mostly "end" as the moment or point of "...


1

Well, to start with, they aren't actually the same "word", as they have a different vowel. The e in -ne is short whilst the e in ne is long. Also, the non-enclitic ne is not primarily an interrogative word at all but a subordinating conjunction that introduces negative clauses that would be introduced by ut if not negative (though the other way around with ...


1

It can mean either, though I would usually say "food" or "dish" instead of "meal". There's not much semantic difference between the singular and the plural; both refer to a vague quantity of "food" rather than a single specific item (just like your French example). A quick corpus search indicates that it's somewhat more common in the singular than in the ...


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