First, Galilaee sounds right.
See this question about the vocative of Gnaeus for details.
There are situations where one finds -ee- in Latin without the first e belonging to ae.
What I found is not word-final, but I assume that is not important for your question.
There are forms of deesse and deerrare, and if the diphthong ae is included, also forms of ...
The Vulgata is full with proper nouns having double -ee, specially as endings (e.g. Bersabee, Phacee, Osee). I imagine you are not particularly interested in these. Below are all the other words I could find:
deest, deerunt, deessent, deerit, deerant, etc. E.g.
Nm 21:5 locutusque contra Deum et Moysen, ait : Cur eduxisti nos de Ægypto, ut moreremur in ...
The following is based mostly on Clackson and Horrocks 2007/2011, Leumann 1977, and Wallace 2011.
First of all, something to keep in mind, as Weiss 2009/2011 puts it, is that
"Long vowels were generally not distinguished in Latin orthography" (p. 29; emphasis mine - Alex B.). That being said, there were four exceptions.
Geminatio vocalium (the double ...
Whether or not this is how the forms really developed, this is how I organize it in my head.
And it has proven quite efficient, so I consider it a good description of what classical Latin conjugation is even if it fails to describe where it comes from.
First, the theme vowels in conjugations 1, 2, and 4 are long: ā, ē, ī.
The vowel i in ...
Here is metric evidence in support of three syllables.
I went through all occurrences of mortuu- in Vergil(ius) and Ovid(ius), and I found no occurrences that would require scanning mortuus or mortuum as a two-syllable word.
Such situations are possible, so absence of such evidence is evidence to the contrary.
The examples below require three syllables to ...
Rarely ee can be used as geminatio vocalium, i.e. to denote that the e is pronounced long. This was mainly used in Oscan and sometimes borrowed to Latin.
For example leege in this inscription:
Vediovei patrei / genteiles Iuliei // Vedi[ov]ei aara // Leege Albana dicata
(aara also denotes long a).
M. Loporcaro in Vowel Length from Latin to Romance notes ...
Alpha privative was short in Ancient Greek, as shown in Smyth (1920) §885 (a long vowel would have been written with a macron, rendered on the Perseus website as an underscore after the vowel).
Alpha from PIE syllabic n was short as a general rule.
All syllables containing long vowels are heavy, but not all heavy syllables contain long vowels.
Syllabification is in general a fairly abstract linguistic concept, and so there are several different ways of thinking about Latin syllabification.
I believe the most common current analysis would be that a syllable is heavy either (a) if it contains a long ...
Weiss writes that
"The u-forms are characteristic of legal and archaizing style, e.g. pecuniae repetundae (the recovery of extorted money), and are found in the isolated forms secundus 'following' and rotundus 'round' (p. 444; emphasis mine - Alex B.).
Powell 2007/2011 adds that even though "the gerundive suffix in -undus, rather than -endus, has an old-...
The υ of ἀπύ (also attested in Arcado-Cypriot, which is the most conservative group of Greek dialects and often shows similarities with Mycenaean) is a secondary development within the Greek dialects, and not inherited from Indo-European. This is shown by many cognates which reflect o, e.g. Hitt. appā, Skt. apa, Russ. po. So it's unlikely to be related to ...
The answer to your question is simple and difficult at the same time.
As Christian Lehmann (Lehmann 2010) puts it rather succinctly,
"A light syllable is one ending in a short vowel; all other syllables are heavy."
The real challenge, of course, is syllabification, i.e. how to correctly (best?) divide any Latin word into syllables, e.g. rēg.num or rē....
A syllable is can be heavy in two ways.
It is heavy by nature if it contains a long vowel or a diphthong.
It is heavy by position if the vowel is followed by a "consonant cluster".
If neither happens, the syllable is light.
It can also be heavy for both of the two reasons.
The irregularities have to do with what "consonant cluster" means.
Mostly, it means ...
"Ei" is almost never a diphthong.
The exact list of examples depends on what you call a "diphthong".
deinde and friends
Cser (2016) argues that Latin has no genuine diphthongs, only vowel + glide sequences. Cser says that, if we set aside words with geminate /j.j/, /ej/ occurs in the following three related words: deinde, dein, deinceps (p. 32). As far ...
The diphthong ei is found before vowels: eius, peior.
The intervocalic i is typically geminated (see this question about I and J) so that eius is pronounced like /ej.jus/ which is practically the same as /ei.jus/.
I find it most reasonable to see this ei as a diphthong.
I am not aware of occurrences before a consonant.
This is quite similar to ui appearing ...
If this question has an answer, the most likely answer is "No, they don't". But in my opinion, the question is not really meaningful.
"No" from a traditional perspective. As far as I know, things like the [ej] in "ejus" were not traditionally categorized as diphthongs.
"No" from at least one modern perspective. If anything is a diphthong in Latin, "au" in ...
Lewis and Short give only three Latin words ending in -oo, all of them verbs:
boare/boere, "to cry"
reboare, "to echo" (the previous one with re-)
inchoare, an alternative spelling of incohare
Apart from boere, these are all first conjugation verbs and their present stem ends in a.
They are not what you asked for, but they seem to be the closest thing ...
In Latin, the rule is simply that the connecting -i- does not appear before a vowel, as in your magn-animus, or using a third-declension adjective (like rapax):
grandaevus "aged" < grandi- "great" + aevum "age"
So rapacatrox seems to be correct. The exception is that the -i- does appear when the first word is monosyllabic, e.g.:
To clarify a little more.
In Gramatica Latina (latin grammar) by Santiago Segura:
Participe of passive future:
It is also called verbal adjective in -NDUS and gerundive and is formed by adding to the present theme the suffix -ND-US, -ND-A, -ND-UM, sometimes by -e- (3rd and 4th conjugation): ama- ndus, -a, -um; dele-nd-us, -a, -um; leg-e-nd-us, -a, -um; cap-...
Weiss writes that “there was no general anaptyxis between a consonant and u” (p. 145). The outcome is different and seems to be unpredictable. In some cases Cu > Cu or CC or C:
equus (*h1ekuos), Minerva (*menesua)
probus (*probhuos), suavis (*suaduis);
Weiss 2009/2011 adds that “*tu apparently did become *tuu with gemination of the t if ...
It would be strange if Latin had diphthongs that could only appear before /j/ -- why the arbitrary restriction? The examples you mention seem to be most naturally analyzed as containing a geminate /j:/ preceded by a short vowel.
Not just the long vowel future—all Latin future-tense marking was lost in the Romance languages!
A few different factors conspired to make the future tense no longer useful in Vulgar Latin:
For an emphatic future meaning, Vulgar Latin used an infinitive plus a form of habeō: this is even found in Cicero for extra emphasis.
b in between vowels and v ...
I don't think we can know for certain, but the fact that the spelling "filii" occurred makes it likely that the word was perceived as having three syllables, and was so treated in poetry. There are various possibilities of how it was actually pronounced:
1) A single extra-long vowel, [i::], in which case the spelling represents perception only.
2) It's ...
There are certainly verbs whose stems end (or used to end) in -i- and -u-, but what would contraction with a following stem vowel mean? "Contraction" here should be expected to result in a rising diphthong: -ye/o- or -we/o-. but these would be transformed according to well-known phonological principles within Greek:
For /u/, consider on one hand the form ...
According to Yellow Sky's description (which lacks citations but lines up with all the words I can think of), the suffix -vus (from PIE *-wós) has three different forms:
-vus after A, E, I, O, L, or R
-us after U or V, including QV
-uus after anything else
Since mort- ends with a T, it falls into the "anything else" category, and the two-syllable suffix -...
vesper (m.) occurs both as an -o stem (gen. vesperi) and as a consonant stem (gen. vesperis), and then there is the -ā stem vespera (fem.) with the same meaning. The verb vesperasco is formed from the latter.
According to Vine's "The Morphology of Italic", all the infinitive endings originated with the third/consonant conjugation, and were extrapolated from there.
Many consonant-stem verbs in Latin used to share a root with an S-stem noun: in other words, the verb was formed by putting (thematic) verb endings directly on the PIE root, and the noun was formed ...
I'd say the main source of our knowledge is poetry. This was true for the Greek grammarians, who invented the notion itself of vowel length, and created prosody as a scientific linguistic theory, aimed to learn how to read and compose correctly poetry (and, later on, rhetoric too). So they classified the phenomena and inferred abstract rules, together with ...
Just to add on to Alex B's answer, though I can't offer as authoritative of sources:
Would it be appropriate to occasionally make the replacement in any context?
In the late Republican period, the answer seems to be yes, but it sounds a bit archaic. I'd compare it to putting the object before the verb in English ("speaking with the object the verb ...
Since the question's changed, here's an answer to the updated one…
Yes, long vowels were lost very early in Vulgar Latin, in the first few centuries CE.
Originally, Latin's long and short vowels (excluding ȳ, y, and æ, which don't fit into the 5+5 system) were identical in quality: the long and short version of each vowel were pronounced exactly the same, ...