20

First, Galilaee sounds right. See this question about the vocative of Gnaeus for details. There are situations where one finds -ee- in Latin without the first e belonging to ae. What I found is not word-final, but I assume that is not important for your question. There are forms of deesse and deerrare, and if the diphthong ae is included, also forms of ...


19

I found the question very interesting, and got me researching against my will. Most of the texts of the Mass —and specifically these— come from antiquity, a time when Latin was still alive. Had there been grammatical errors, twenty centuries would suffice to find and correct them. So it may be a little far-fetched to put a mistake as the default hypothesis. ...


19

I searched for the vocative form Gnaee in several corpora but did not find any results. A general web search seems to reveal only automatically generated vocatives, which I would not lend much credence to, as well as the excellent 16th century example cited by @JoelDerfner in Juan Luis Vives's De Initiis Sectis Et Laudibus Philosophiae. The two alternatives ...


12

The Vulgata is full with proper nouns having double -ee, specially as endings (e.g. Bersabee, Phacee, Osee). I imagine you are not particularly interested in these. Below are all the other words I could find: deest, deerunt, deessent, deerit, deerant, etc. E.g. Nm 21:5 locutusque contra Deum et Moysen, ait : Cur eduxisti nos de Ægypto, ut moreremur in ...


10

I compared the Latin Gloria with the Greek Doxa: Greek language has much more vocative forms than Latin. In the Doxa series of vocatives alternate with series of nominatives, mostly with the article "'o" (absent in Latin); like: "kyrie 'o theos, 'o amnos tou theou, 'o yios tou patros" (Latin "Domine Deus, Agnus Dei, Filius Patris"). Nominative serves not ...


10

Eureka, as the scientist said. J. L. Vives, 16th century humanist, uses the vocative of Gnæus Pompeius in Pompeius Fugiens (page 136 of the Brill edition of his early writings, volume I). Brill spells it Gnæe, but the notes seem to indicate that one ms spells it Gnee and three others spell it Cnee.


9

The vocative is the case used for addressing someone. If you said to your friend Mike, "Hey, Mike, I think your sister is swell," "Mike" would be in the vocative case. Or if you found someone in your seat at a bar and said, "Hey, buddy, do you want to move?" "buddy" would be in the vocative case. That's why mater is in the vocative case in O mater, es ...


7

Rarely ee can be used as geminatio vocalium, i.e. to denote that the e is pronounced long. This was mainly used in Oscan and sometimes borrowed to Latin. For example leege in this inscription: Vediovei patrei / genteiles Iuliei // Vedi[ov]ei aara // Leege Albana dicata (aara also denotes long a). M. Loporcaro in Vowel Length from Latin to Romance notes ...


7

Defining the vocative: something like "a form used for address" I didn't give a definition of "vocative" in my original question, but it seems like it might be worthwhile, since there are a few constructions that look similar that we might want to distinguish. It seems necessary to start with non-neuter -us nouns of the second declension like "Brutus" and "...


6

I think both constructions are possible, but do not have the same connotation. Confiteor Deo […] et vobis fratribus would have a meaning like "I confess to God ... and to you (who are my) brothers"; but Confiteor Deo […] et vobis, fratres, "I confess to God ... and to you, O my brothers". In other words, there is a change of focus in the latter, where the ...


6

I've never seen the gerund used in the vocative, and a search for -ende in the Packhum corpus turned up nothing but imperatives. But I would be very surprised if such a form existed. The gerund in general is defective, in that it has no nominative. If this missing form is needed, it's replaced by the infinitive. Since the vocative is almost always ...


6

I believe all of those options are possible. [This paragraph is partly wrong; I should correct it sometime. The rest should be correct. The vocative on -e only came to Latin relatively late, although it had become the standard by the classical age. In older Latin, the nominative -us functioned as the vocative—i.e. Latin had no separate vocative at first, for ...


6

Jungmann in his magisterial work on the Roman Mass suggests that this is in keeping with a grammatical rule in many languages: from a feeling of reverence, religious terms are apt to be handled as indeclinable.In a footnote he notes the vocative "Deus" (Mass of the Roman Rite, vol. 2 pg. 338).


5

It does indeed look like direct address where the author forgot to use vocative, but it is not the only option. It is possible to read your sentence this way: Listen to me kindly and carefully, as the Roman nation of citizens, as my friends and as my compatriots. Viewed like this, the use of a nominative without any added words (like the English "as") is ...


4

hi everybody! The question is very controversial, truly. But there are some elements on which we can construct an answer. Firts I would like to start with a quote of the french author Chateaubriand, who writes in Mémoires d'outre-tombe "Macte animo generose puer" ascribing it to Virgil (here the Wikisource reference 1 with some notes). This false ...


4

First, the empirical facts, which are pretty much beyond controversy. In classical Latin, there is no (textually secure*) attested vocative form of deus. That is, dee does not exist, and deus is not used as a vocative. When a vocative deus became necessary for Christian Latin, they employed the nominative form deus rather than creating a new vocative ...


4

No, forms of address are always in the vocative and are syntactically independent - they are extraclausal (Pinkster 2015: 1224). However, appositives agree with the head (in case, gender, and number), so they are syntactically dependent. Naturally, appositives can precede or follow vocative forms of address. Appositives will be in the morphological form ...


3

Neuter plural in "o tempora, o mores" (Cicero, as classical as you can get).


3

It is not true that the vocative in -e is late, that "Latin had no separate vocative at first", nor that the vocative is borrowed from Greek. On the contrary, the use of the bare stem of nouns for the vocative singular is common Indo-European (e.g. in Sanskrit). The use of the nominative instead of the vocative is a syntactic feature in Greek, and it is ...


2

This question has now been answered by Cerberus, though his answer was posted in regard to a different (related) question. It seems that there are examples from Livy and Lucan (at least) of the form populus being used as a vocative (though popule is also attested). So Nairn is justified.


2

(I would leave this as a comment but it's too long, so.) For what it's worth, there seem to be two translations of Julius Caesar into Latin, and both are useless for determining what's "correct" here, since they use plural nouns, which would be the same whether nominative or vocative. One, from 1856, is by Henry Denison; the relevant lines are rendered: ...


2

I can't help but wonder whether there is an assumed "es" ("you are") in these phrases. Finite forms of "esse" are often severely abbreviated or even omitted in Latin. "[You are] the holy, holy, holy Lord, God Sabaoth", etc.


1

I am a Jewish convert to Christianity. I practiced Orthodox Judaism for 18 years. Hebrew blessings have this same grammatical peculiarity. Most Hebrew blessings start off: "Blessed art Thou O Lord our God King of the universe who ... With the who portion of the blessing reverting to the third person while the first part of the blessing is in the second ...


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