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11

It definitely isn't rare, and it definitely isn't found only in poetry. Any good Latin grammar will address this topic. In Gildersleeve and Lodge, Latin grammar, the index entry for esse includes a subentry for 'omitted.' The main section where this topic is treated is 209. It gives a general rule, examples, and then notes, including a note that addresses ...


7

Here's a partial answer. Common in proverbs, and possibly epitaphs, which are not exactly poetry. Nil desperandum,' 'Ars longa, Vita brevis,' The life so short, the craft so long to learn (Chaucer) 'Ad augusta per angusta,' Á des résultats augustes par des voies étroites. (quoted in Hernani: Victor Hugo) 'Amicus Plato, sed magis amica veritas,' ...


7

As your question implies, the * in *toccare means that the word is unattested, i.e., there is no direct written evidence that the verb actually existed. This does not mean that there is a good argument against its existence: vulgar Latin/Proto-Romance was the language of (mostly) illiterate people. It doesn't mean either that there is no good argument for ...


6

The Wiktionary article on Italian volere says that, as the infinitive suggests, the verb was moved to the second conjugation in Vulgar Latin, so it traces it to a "Vulgar Latin *volēre". The -gli- in voglio would come from -le- before a vowel (through steps something like [le] > [lj] > [ʎː]), as in Italian paglia from Latin palea. I don't see any indication ...


6

Yes, I think you're correct. There is no Lat. denominal verb patriare that is directly formed from patria. As for the Engl. late verb patriate, it was coined from repatriate via a backformation process. Why is there no originally unprefixed denominal verb like *patriare? Well, probably, for the same reason there is no denominal verb like, for example, *...


6

Welcome to the site! I'm afraid there isn't exactly one way to rule them all. But there are various phonological rules by which you can guess the roots of a significant number of verbs. For example, -(i)sk, -nu, and -an are common present suffixes, so cut them off if you want to find the root. The -an- suffix is in the present manthanô (root math-); -nu is ...


6

According to Perseus's morphology tool, this form comes from the compound εἰσ-άγω, "to lead into".


6

The most common usage of impleo is with the accusative and ablative. The accusative tells you what is being filled. The ablative tells you with what it is being filled. N.B. By analogy with plenus + gen. (= "full of X"), sometimes the genitive is used here instead. For example: Impleo poculum (acc.) vino (abl.) = "I fill the cup with wine." Augustine ...


5

All three are fine! While there might be a slight difference in nuance, I would say that you can freely use any of them that feels best in that situation. There just turns out to be many ways to express the same things, and there are a great many other verbs for similar purposes like ingredi and intrare. There are examples in Lewis and Short: You can use ...


5

Greek verbs have six principal parts, meaning that to be able to conjugate a verb in all of its tenses, you need to know all six different roots with their conjugations. Sometimes the roots used in each principal part are identical (e.g. with λύω), sometimes similar (e.g. λείπω), and sometimes (as you already acknowledge) entirely different (e.g. λέγω). Here ...


4

The wiktionary entry on the Italian verb toccare is somewhat more explicit, saying Probably from a Vulgar Latin root *toccare, of Germanic or onomatopoetic origin. Compare French toucher, Friulian tocjâ, Portuguese tocar, Romanian toca, Romansh tutgar, Sicilian tuccari, Sardinian toccai, Spanish tocar, Venetian tocar The existence of descendants in such ...


4

Here is a descriptive answer (see below for a long, more specialized answer): So-called verb-framed languages are "enter running" languages and so-called satellite-framed ones are "{run in/in-run}" languages (NB: for the distinction between "run in" languages (e.g., English) and "in-run" languages (e.g., Latin or Russian), see below). What is important ...


4

A purely synchronical description of the whole picture in the first Century BC would be as follows. Pronouns of the first and second person, as well as reflexives, don't have a single form in the genitive. In most contexts, possessive adjectives are used instead. Otherwise, For partitives and adpositions with omnium, nostrum, vestrum are used. For objects ...


4

volō can indeed mean either “I want” or “I fly”, but the other forms of the two words are different (e.g. infinitive velle vs volāre), so they were definitely perceived as different words and this difference is expanded in Romance. Like Italian, French also has vouloir < *volēre and voler < volāre. The infinitive *volēre is not attested as such, but it ...


3

In a comment, Alex B. referred to the 2001 Dictionnaire étymologique de la langue latine by Alfred Ernout and Antoine Meillet, which contains the following passage: Les grammairiens latins voyaient dans ignōscere un composé avec le préfixe privatif in-; cf. la glose ignoscere : non noscere, Loewe, Prodromus 409, et Thes. gloss. emend. s. u. ignōscō. Mais ...


3

The se refers to the subject of the main verb occiderit. In general, se can refer to the subject of the verb whose object it is, or a verb dominating that verb. When reading a subordinate clause or anything similar, bear in mind that suus or se can refer to subjects further away. Grammar does allow you to read it so that someone pursued himself with a sword,...


3

Fuerit is the perfect subjunctive of esse, you can look up such forms in a conjugation table like this. Part of learning Latin is guessing what form of what verb you might be looking at, and then confirming your guess in the dictionary if you do not know the verb by heart. This is a nice thing about printed dictionaries: Even if you do not find corrupi…, you ...


3

The verb veniunt doesn't work as directly with the gerundive (future passive participle) as you think. Omnia consideranda is "everything that must be considered", so it should be more along the lines of: [These] come before everything that must be considered. You can argue that the meaning is practically the same, but I think there is a meaningful ...


2

As pointed out by Joonas, it is VERY important to give the relevant/full quotes (at least, in these cases). Otherwise, the poster can receive contradictory feedback. For example, Joonas answered as Cicero would probably did. Indeed, in Classical Latin the only interpretation/analysis of the first example is the one given by Joonas. However, it is the case ...


2

Possible examples: carcero, carcerare. Lewis and Short has an entry defining it as follows: to imprison, incarcerate (post-class.), Salv. Prov. 2, p. 53; Auct. Prog. Aug. 29. Pretty clearly based on the location noun carcer, and the entry seems to clearly define it as a location verb. I haven't examined the citations. corono, coronare. Lewis and Short ...


1

If you're using the 7th edition of Wheelock's Latin (the most recent edition), this is explained at the bottom of page 4: Note that the stem vowel has no macron in certain forms (e.g., moneō, laudānt); learn the following rule, which will make it easier to account for macrons that seem to disappear and reappear arbitrarily: Vowels that are normally ...


1

As for more recent scholarship on this topic, I recommend you to take a look at the following monograph by G. Haverling, who is THE expert on -sco verbs. HAVERLING, Gerd (2000). On sco-Verbs, Prefixes and Semantic Functions. A Study in the Development of Prefixed and Unprefixed Verbs from Early to Late Latin. Studia Graeca et Latina Gothoburgensia, 64. ...


1

The other answers explain the "what" very well; I wanted to add a bit on the "why". According to Brent Vine (in Klein's Handbook of Comparative and Historical Indo-European Linguistics): These [forms] have their sources in phonological reductions (thus audīstī and the like with regular glide loss and contraction for /u̯/ between like vowels), but then ...


1

In English any verb which syntactically takes a subject can be reassumed by “do”. “I hate cod but she doesn’t” is perfectly natural even though no actual doing is involved. Indeed one of the puzzles of modern Latin languages is that they cannot easily resume verbs. Either they just omit the verb altogether (pero ella no?) or they have to change construction....


1

Let us look at the verbs behaving like this and some corresponding nouns: pudere; pudor paenitere; paenitia, paenitudo taedere; taedium pigere; ? miserere; miseria The list of related nouns is probably not exhaustive, but I could not come up with more. In cases 1–3 all the nouns appear to be derived from the verb rather than the other way around. I ...


1

In the Q, adding "him": "...when assaulting him "se" ("him" being the first person, referred to by "quis", which explains why the reflexive pronoun is used, in an indirect statement). An alternative translation: "But even if anyone kills another, who is attacking him, with a sword...". If the attacker brandished his sword at a third party; then, a ...


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