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13

A subjunctive is practically never negated with οὐ. The only systematic exception I can find -- and even this is rare -- is in Homer, where the use of the subjunctive is somewhat different from Attic; some subjunctives in Homer are more or less synonymous with future forms, and these are negated with οὐ. But this doesn't happen in Attic. The main uses of ...


9

This is a quirk of conditions in indirect statement: a perfect subjunctive in the protasis of a future less vivid condition turns to pluperfect subjunctive when in indirect statement. For examples see Allen and Greenough 589, 2.a.3. What's a little unusual about this example is that pollicebatur isn't introducing a full indirect statement, but just takes an ...


6

One way you can do this is using the verb debeo, debere, debui, debitus, which not only means "to owe," but also "ought/should." It's relatively simple in its construction, so lets go through each scenario you gave using the verb amo for the thing you should be doing. You should love him So first, one puts debeo into the second person singular. Then, one ...


6

There is, in fact! As you mention, the Latin "perfect tense" is a combination of the present perfective and past aoristic tense-aspect combinations, which remained separate in Greek (the "perfect" and "aorist"). So a "perfect" verb form can be either a present perfective (an action was completed in the past and affects ...


6

Pretty much never. LSJ's entry on οὐ mentions οὐ + subjunctive only once: ...with subj[unctive] in fut[ure] sense, only in Ep[ic], “οὐ γάρ τίς με βίῃ γε ἑκὼν ἀέκοντα δίηται” 7.197; “οὐκ ἄν τοι χραίς μῃ κίθαρις” 3.54, cf. 11.387. To elaborate: the subjunctive mood in Epic can have a meaning closer to the Classical future tense. When this happens, and the ...


5

Tenses of the subjunctive The subjunctive is also known as conjunctive — these two words are synonymous in Latin grammar. The subjunctive mood has four tenses: present (faciam), imperfect (facerem), perfect (fecerim) and pluperfect (fecissem). The indicative mood has two more tenses: future and future perfect. While the subjunctive does not have ...


5

I don't believe it is possible. A quick scan of the article in Liddell Scott Jones gave only this: with subj. in fut. sense, only in Ep., “οὐ γάρ τίς με βίῃ γε ἑκὼν ἀέκοντα δίηται” 7.197; “οὐκ ἄν τοι χραίς μῃ κίθαρις” 3.54, cf. 11.387. However, θαυμάσῃ is not normally indicative: ῃ ... is usually given as the proper spelling in the texts of the ...


4

Pinkster in the Oxford Latin Syntax (pp. 492ff.) discusses this question, but finds no clear answer. He considers three explanations: (a) there is a difference in meaning, specifically a difference of aspect; (b) the perfect subjunctive in potential clauses is a Graecism due largely to Cicero; (c) there is a pragmatic difference in that perfect subjunctive ...


4

The only guidelines I've seen that are related to this issue in any way aren't really about the switch to historic present per se. (Every discussion I've ever seen is in agreement that the historic present is used to add 'vividness.') Instead, the guidelines are related to the appropriate use of the historic present and the historic infinitive; and both sets ...


4

This is an idiom peculiar to Latin: habitāre in the imperfect means "dwelt", and in the perfect means "used to dwell (but no longer does)". I've seen it frequently in the imperfect, but almost never in the perfect. That is, in Latin, "dwelling" is seen as an action which has to take place over a period of time, rather than just at an instant. So the ...


3

Fuerit is the perfect subjunctive of esse, you can look up such forms in a conjugation table like this. Part of learning Latin is guessing what form of what verb you might be looking at, and then confirming your guess in the dictionary if you do not know the verb by heart. This is a nice thing about printed dictionaries: Even if you do not find corrupi…, you ...


3

I think you are trying too hard to achieve your objective, by using both a verb in subjunctive mood and a separate (and pleonastic) expression of uncertainty. The key to a good translation here is to begin at the uncertainty, which you need express only once : in other words, decide on a single way to do it. I would prefer something as simple as Hoc credo, ...


3

As a native English speaker, I would use a past tense to describe something that was once true but no longer is, and the present to describe something that is still true. Barack Obama was the president; Donald Trump is the president (as of the time of writing). Similarly, Julius Caesar was a conqueror, because he hasn't conquered anything for a few thousand ...


3

Both articles are correct: Homeric Greek had injunctive forms that looked different from the "normal" past tenses, but they didn't mean anything different. In late Proto-Indo-European, or at least some branches of it, the pure aspect system had started to turn into the mixed tense-aspect system we see in Greek and Latin. In what would become Greek (and also ...


3

To answer to your question directly: Why not vidēbam? Is it optional to use the imperfect here? Or does the perfect tense convey a distinction here, like "I saw him here several times in the past" vs. "I used to see him here often"? Just as you thought, imperfect is not compulsory because there is a distinction that may be made. You could actually use a ...


3

Your specific question allows it, so would you be interested in avoiding the construction with a conjugated verb ? If you are, you might consider a few options, some of which are admittedly arcane and maybe not exactly grammatical (because I'm mostly spitballing here): using a perfect tense in the passive voice plus ellipsis of es/eris (of course, this ...


3

I will try to add to my answer with a more grammatical explanation if I have time, but for now I can introduce some sample phrases. These examples come from the Lewis & Short entry for donec: Future perfect haud desinam, donec perfecero hoc (Ter. Ph. 2, 3, 73) Also: neque defetiscar usque adeo experirier donec tibi id quod pollicitus sum ...


2

Such a list of events in sequence gets a bit boring if you use the same structure again and again. Sometimes this is good for clarity or emphasizing repetition. There are several structures to express this kind of thing in Latin, and here are some: A temporal clause: Cum rem primam fecerim, rem secundam faciam. "When I have done the first thing, I will ...


2

Tuomo Pekkanen's Ars Grammatica (A Latin grammar in Finnish) mentions (§113.3) that The perfect conjunctive is used as a present time coniunctivus potentialis in the same meaning as the present conjunctive. The best example he gives is this: Hoc sine ulla dubitatione confirmaverim. — I might confirm this without any hesitation. (Cicero's ...


2

This answer is based on my intuition, so it is to be taken cum grano salis. The seeing is stated as a fact from the point of view of an action in the present, or so it seems to me. (I have never seen LLPSI!) This relation to present is a reason to prefer perfect over imperfect in my opinion. Using the imperfect often describes circumstances of the past ("I ...


1

The Latin imperfect describes past circumstances, not a sharp action, and it is really the only possible Latin tense for this purpose. This could have been translated as "was living" or "was dwelling" in English, but it may have felt unnecessarily heavy. In this context it seems to me that "lived" or "dwelt" communicate the same idea. So "was dwelling" would ...


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