As an adjective, indeed, medius, -a, -um does not take a genitive. However, there is a noun, the substantive medium, -i, which also means "middle" or "midst." Referring to a physical space, it's fairly common during the Augustan era and later, and, yes, it can take a genitive. Compare this passage of Livy 37.13.10:
insidiis medio ferme ...
The gist of Au101's answer is confirmed by de Vaan's Etymological Dictionary. First, regarding sex, in Proto-Italic and Proto-Indo-European, he gives:
PIt. *seks 'six', *seks-to- 'sixth'
PIE *(s)ueks 'six', *uks-ó- 'sixth'.
The PIt. form *seks has analogically dropped *-w- from *sweks by analogy with *septm 'seven'.
Regarding sexus, there is ...
There are at least some cases in which this can be done, with different shades of meaning.
graecisso (-izo), āre, v. n., = Γραικίζω, to imitate the Greeks, to adopt a Grecian manner or tone: atque adeo hoc argumentum graecissat; tamen Non atticissat; verum sicelissat, Plaut. Men. prol. 7; v. Ritschl ad h. l.: graecizat, Consent. 1063 P.
atticisso, āre, v. n....
No, I don't think so, and for this I can actually rely on etymonline which is a fine resource, even if linguistics students are discouraged from using it for their homework.
The entry for the English word 'six' is complete enough:
Old English siex, six, sex, from Proto-Germanic *sekhs (source also of Old Saxon and Danish seks, Old Norse, Swedish, and Old ...
In the Oxford Latin Dictionary (which only covers Classical Latin):
An infant, little child (strictly, one not yet able to talk).
The use of "strictly" in the parenthesis implies that even in Classical Latin the definition wasn't always applied strictly. The dictionary cites two examples from the Corpus Inscriptionum Latinarum:
(used expressly ...
Another partial answer.
Tl;dr: kissing had a social role in Judaism that was inherited into Christianity (as osculum in the Vulgate), where it even had/acquired a ceremonial role (not sure if this one existed among Jews). Maybe—and this is pure speculation—this ceremonial role was what later made the word osculum a matter of respect and created ...
I cannot provide a complete answer either, but perhaps a few points one the subject of kissing, and the semantics of the words for it. I cannot, unfortunately, provide immediate literature references for these,
The elder word for the kiss is osculum, attested in the earliest writing, and with a very transparent meaning (“little mouth”). Romans had a ...
The usual explanation given in historical grammars, e.g. those of Weiss, Sihler, and Buck, is that the -er- stems result from regular sound change, while the -or- stems result from analogical remodeling on the basis of the nominative/accusative.
A well-known Latin sound change turned all short vowels in word-medial open syllables to i. Since short ...
Plural place names should have plural verbs. A very simple case of this is Athenae, -arum (Athens). Here's an illuminating example from Cicero:
in quam cum intueor, maxime mihi occurrunt, Attice, et quasi lucent Athenae tuae, qua in urbe primum se orator extulit primumque etiam monumentis et litteris oratio est coepta mandari. (Cicero, Brutus 7)
There are two distinct words here:
The noun vertebra.
The adjective vertebralis, "related to vertebra".
The adjective is derived from the noun, and both the noun and the adjective have various different forms.
This is an important starting point and helps make sense of such Latin terms.
Adding the prefix inter- to the adjective turns it into a ...
It is indeed a second declension word. It is used in the plural. You can confirm this on the Lewis and Short dictionary:
Delphi , orum, m., Δελφοί,
I.the famous city of the oracle of Apollo in Phocis, now Kastri
Understandably, the word comes from Greek, being a Greek city and all. The Greek word, Δελφοί, is also used in the plural.
Δελφοί , ῶν, οἱ,
Here's counter-evidence for you, from Ovid Amores (2,5).
inproba tum vero iungentes oscula vidi—
illa mihi lingua nexa fuisse liquet—
qualia non fratri tulerit germana severo,
sed tulerit cupido mollis amica viro;
qualia credibile est non Phoebo ferre Dianam,
sed Venerem Marti saepe tulisse suo.
or here's an excerpt from Platus Mercator (744-...
Smith's Copious & Critical English-Latin Dictionary (p. 430) in longish articles is good on this, giving suavium as the "most suitable word for ordinary use", osculor as "the term most suitable for the highest composition" (cf. the original question) and so on.
In his arch, Victorian way, Smith cites basium as "esp. an amorous or lewd kiss" and, in fact,...
Philomen Probert (Wolfson College, Oxford) writes that
"[A] nominative/accusative dual ending in ω always has an acute, never a circumflex, if accented on the final syllable, regardless of contraction:
νόω > νώ (not *νῶ); ὀστέω > ὀστώ (not *ὀστῶ)
(Probert 2003, §112). This is a synchronic observation.
Other similar exceptions (to the normal rules ...
This book suggests:
SALARY, salaire, F. From salarium, L. a stated
allowance of provisions given to a soldier, of which (sal)
salt was a necessary part; and hence the term came to signify pay or salary.
This other book suggests:
SALARY. Of or belonging to salt. Money given
to the soldiers for salt. (L. salarium.) (A. L.) [Andrew's Latin Lexicon]
There are agent nouns for all genders.
For example, saltare gives rise to saltator, saltatrix, and saltatrum.
For more details, see this question.
The stem is revealed by the genitive form.
For my three examples they are saltator- (third conjugation), saltatric- (third), and saltatr- (second).
(The stem of rex is reg-, so it has a g instead of a c.)
If you ...
It is common for male names to be put into the second declension when Latinized, in which case they inflect in general like any other second-declension noun. So going from Raonīus as a second-declension nominative form, it is quite clear that the accusative is Raonīum and the ablative/dative is Raonīō.
As far as I know, no native Latin name ends in -īus ...
The etymology of 'virgo' proposed by Ledo-Lemos, and rejected by Vaan (without further explanations), does not explain Lat. virgo as a compound from "*uiH-ro- (man) and *gʷén-eH₂- (woman)", but from *wir- 'young, youthful' (not 'man'!) and '*gʷén- 'woman'. According with this hypothesis, Lat. virgo originated as a compound whose original meaning was "young ...
Most likely not. According to de Vaan, there are two hypotheses on the etymology of virgo.
virgo, -inis 'girl of marriageable age; virgin' [f. (m.) ri\ (Andr.-l·)
Derivatives: virginalis 'of a girl of marriageable age' (PL+), virginarius 'concerned
with girls of a marriageable age' (P1.+), virgineus 'of a girl; virgin' (Lucr.+).
WH interpret virgo ...
Latin doesn't need any changes at all. Since there are no definite articles, there's no need for anything but using the adjective substantively. The only requirement is following normal grammar rules on case endings.
So, you could easily say both vir bonus and just bonus for "the good man." Same with participles, one of the most memorably lines from Livy is ...
According to the conclusion of one discussion, constructions in which these nouns are modified by feminine adjectives, when referring to females, are
not so much avoided as simply not needed ... There is no grammatical reason not to treat these as common gender or epicene nouns. There are adjectives in the same declension class, like ruricola and indigena,...
This is well-known and virtually all good grammars discuss this (as vowel syncope).
Genetivus singularis helps us reconstruct the original nom.sg. form (synchronically), that's why we learn nouns in Latin in two forms, nominativus singularis and genetivus singularis.
Type A. No change, the vowel was present in all forms.
Nom. sg. pueros > *puers > puer
What you have written is grammatically correct and there is no conflict. The subject of dicit is nomen and of continet is prima (provincia). Your actual question doesn't cover your example, but your request is perfectly clear.
There are two kinds of plural noun. Some, such as hiberna (winter quarters), moenia (town walls) and tenebrae (darkness) are only ...
No. Essentia (to-be-ness) was coined by Cicero as a Latin counterpart for the Greek οὐσία (ousia). Both words refer to something's essence or nature, that which makes a thing "to be" the particular kind of thing that it is. Nature or essence is contrasted with accidents, those qualities of a thing that can change without changing what kind of thing something ...
A she-wolf in Greek is ἡ λύκαινα.
See, for instance, Plutarch's De Fortuna Romanorum, §8:
εἶτα λύκαινα μὲν νεοτόκος σπαργῶσα καὶ πλημμυροῦσα τοὺς μαστοὺς γάλακτι, τῶν σκύμνων ἀπολωλότων, αὐτὴ χρῄζουσα κουφισμοῦ, περιέστειξε τὰ βρέφη καὶ θηλὴν ἐπέσχεν, ὥσπερ ὠδῖνα δευτέραν ἀποτιθεμένη τὴν τοῦ γάλακτος.
There it was that a she-wolf, ...
The attested nom. sing. is either the Latinised cetus m., or the borrowed cetos n. In the plural only the borrowed cete n., nom./acc. is attested, but by analogy one would expect gen. *ceton and dat. *cetesi. Which does leave us at a loss for the ablative.
It's not something I've seen often, but it indeed exists. The Theodosian code has Graecitas:
Habeat igitur audītōrium speciāliter nostrum in hīs prīmum, quōs Rōmānae ēloquentiae doctrīna commendat, ōrātōrēs quidem trēs numerō, decem vērō grammaticōs; in hīs etiam, quī fācundiā graecitātis pollēre nōscuntur, quīnque numerō sint sofistae et grammaticī aequē ...
Since you mention "curriculum vitae", I assume you're focusing on metaphorical rather than physical uses, and on a name for something (rather than using it in a sentence)?
When talking about ideas rather than physical objects, it's not uncommon to put the possession in the singular and the possessor in the plural.
Suetonius' De Vitā Caesārum "on ...
I don't have anything to say about this particular case, but the phenomenon itself is common.
Any adjective can be substantivized.
For example rubrum (from ruber, "red") can mean "the color red" or "a red thing".
Translating such nouns depends heavily on context.
As with any word, a substantivized adjective can acquire a meaning different from the original ...