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23 votes

Did Latin have the same gender labels that the Romance languages have?

Yes, Latin had a distinction between masculine and feminine nouns (and also a third category, "neuter"). This didn't always correspond to biology—homo "human" is always masculine, ...
Draconis's user avatar
  • 68.4k
7 votes
Accepted

Septīmus or septĭmus?

French septime is clearly marked as a learned form by the use of -pt-. As a learned word, it provides no evidence to the length of the Latin vowel. The TLFi mentions an old form sedme, setme inherited ...
Asteroides's user avatar
  • 29.7k
4 votes

Did Latin have the same gender labels that the Romance languages have?

Most1 Afroasiatic Languages also have noun gender. This appears to indicate it was likely a common feature of Proto-Afroasiatic, and not borrowed later from contact with Indo-European. I'm not sure ...
T.E.D.'s user avatar
  • 149

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