17 votes
Accepted

Are there Latin words known only by reconstruction from Romance languages?

Wiktionary has over 350 reconstructed terms for Latin. Each of these have been proposed by linguists based on etymological evidence. Each page for these terms is described as follows: This Latin ...
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8 votes

Why is specifically "Latin America" called that when numerous other regions' languages are also based on the Latin language?

But doesn't English and French and German and Italian and basically everything in Europe come from Latin as well? Not in the same way! Essentially all European languages have borrowed a lot of ...
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8 votes
Accepted

Why did "cattus" replace Latin "feles"?

From the history of cats, it is clear that domesticated cats were introduced to the Romans from Egypt. Before that, the Romans had ferrets as mouse hunters. So the classical word feles refers to the ...
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7 votes
Accepted

Can the use of articles be traced back to Late/Vulgar Latin?

Isolated usages of unus as an indefinite article have been identified in Old and Classical Latin, but generally speaking unus and ille did not establish themselves as articles until Late and early ...
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7 votes

What evidence points to a long ō in the first syllable of nōscō's present-tense form?

A note re: evidence from IE comparanda PIE *nH > Sanskrit ā, Avestan ā, Latin nā, etc. but Greek nē/ā/ō (Beekes 2011: 151). Some of the relevant IE cognates are Greek γιγνώσκω, OPers. xšnāsāhiy, ...
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6 votes

Why is specifically "Latin America" called that when numerous other regions' languages are also based on the Latin language?

Latin American here. As mentioned in the other answers, the Americas were colonized basically by the British, Spanish, and Portuguese (and to a lesser extent by the French and Dutch). All the French ...
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  • 10.1k
6 votes

Can gender be kept from Latin to a descend language? Are there patterns for this?

"Words neuter in Latin become masculine in Spanish" This is generally correct! In Latin, the most common type of masculine noun and the most common type of neuter noun look almost identical. They're ...
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  • 50.6k
5 votes

What is the origin of the deponent verbs and their evolution in Romance languages?

Most of the time, deponent verbs in Latin come from the Indo-European middle voice, which had pretty much completely died out by Classical Latin times. But in other Indo-European languages, such as ...
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5 votes

What evidence points to a long ō in the first syllable of nōscō's present-tense form?

Since posting the question, I was able to consult Peter Schrijver's "The Reflexes of the Proto-Indo-European Laryngeals in Latin" (1991) (cited by de Vaan), which, along with Alex B.'s answer, has ...
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  • 20.8k
5 votes

Is *rīcus attested?

Ricus and riccus show up in late Medieval and Humanist Latin, but they're certainly backports from French and Italian, not pre-Medieval loans. The various Romance cognates of rich are actually ...
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  • 6,160
5 votes

Intonation pattern in Classical Latin that is the same intonation pattern Dora Marquez of Dora the Explorer does at times when she is speaking English

Despite my respect for Bervoets' efforts and his commitment to recreating an authentic Latin pronunciation (see this video) which I also share, his intonation sounds histrionic and highly unnatural to ...
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4 votes

Intonation pattern in Classical Latin that is the same intonation pattern Dora Marquez of Dora the Explorer does at times when she is speaking English

FYI, some of your links don't work (e.g., the first one). To my ear, Dora Marquez speaks in a variety of standard American English with no obvious trace of a Spanish-influenced accent as you have said....
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4 votes

Latin version of "non ho che un" or "je n'ai qu'un"

The construction at issue here seems to have its origin in Late Latin. According to Moignet (1973: 50), one has to consider Fr. ne que "come remontant au latin tardif non...quam, représentant non ...
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  • 6,442
4 votes

What evidence is there for volēre over volere?

A Latin form *volĕre would have been stressed on the first syllable. Italian volere is stressed on the penultimate syllable, like a Latin form *volēre. There could have been a Vulgar Latin form *...
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  • 20.8k
3 votes

Is long vowel feature completely lost in deviated languages?

Not just the long vowel future—all Latin future-tense marking was lost in the Romance languages! A few different factors conspired to make the future tense no longer useful in Vulgar Latin: For an ...
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  • 50.6k
3 votes

When did the penult stress rule disappear?

I cannot agree with your statement that “vowel length seems to have been lost very early” in Latin. Latin long and short vowels develop differently in the daughter languages. For example Latin short e ...
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3 votes
Accepted

When did the penult stress rule disappear?

I think you're mistaken when you say "certain sound changes in the Romance languages, like posttonic vowel syncope ..., still rely on the penult stress rules". There are two separate processes ...
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  • 4,548
3 votes

Why is specifically "Latin America" called that when numerous other regions' languages are also based on the Latin language?

Welcome to the Latin SE! Latin was not just a language - it also referred to a specific group of people who lived on the Italic peninsula before the Roman Empire or Republic. After the rise of Rome, ...
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3 votes

Why is *salāta feminine? What was the original noun it is modifying?

It could easily originally be a neuter plural: salata — "salted things".
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  • 2,791
3 votes

Vowel hiatus and non-diphthong vowel pairs (compared to Romance languages)

I think poetry is the biggest data source indicating that hiatus was usual in Latin for i e u + vowel. In the stage of the language that was ancestral to the Romance languages, both i and e were ...
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  • 20.8k
2 votes

Latin version of "non ho che un" or "je n'ai qu'un"

The closest Latin equivalent seems to be: Non habeo plus quam unum amicum. What seems to have happened is that in Italian and French you can drop the plus. But you cannot drop the word in Spanish; ...
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2 votes

Is long vowel feature completely lost in deviated languages?

Since the question's changed, here's an answer to the updated one… Yes, long vowels were lost very early in Vulgar Latin, in the first few centuries CE. Originally, Latin's long and short vowels (...
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2 votes

Latin version of "non ho che un" or "je n'ai qu'un"

Researching on tony's answer, I searched for plus unum in Perseus. Here's what I found: etiam quia plus [p. 33] quam unum ex patriciis creari non licebat (Liv 39 32) / Only one consul could be a ...
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  • 10.1k
1 vote

Latin version of "non ho che un" or "je n'ai qu'un"

A debate, in comments (with Joonas) on the possible tautological use of "solum" = "only", when "unum" = "the one-and-only", already; and, points raised with ...
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  • 6,940

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