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Wiktionary has over 350 reconstructed terms for Latin. Each of these have been proposed by linguists based on etymological evidence. Each page for these terms is described as follows: This Latin entry contains reconstructed words and roots. As such, the term(s) in this entry are not directly attested, but are hypothesized to have existed based on ...


8

But doesn't English and French and German and Italian and basically everything in Europe come from Latin as well? Not in the same way! Essentially all European languages have borrowed a lot of vocabulary from Latin. But for some languages the relation is much more intimate: The so-called Romance languages evolved directly from Latin. They were not only ...


8

From the history of cats, it is clear that domesticated cats were introduced to the Romans from Egypt. Before that, the Romans had ferrets as mouse hunters. So the classical word feles refers to the wild cat, but the Wanderwort cattus (of unknown origin, maybe Nubian) refers to the the domesticated cat. Since domesticated cats are much more important to ...


7

Isolated usages of unus as an indefinite article have been identified in Old and Classical Latin, but generally speaking unus and ille did not establish themselves as articles until Late and early Medieval Latin. Unus Regarding unus, Harm Pinkster provides several commonly cited examples of unus as article or article-like from the 4th century and earlier: ...


7

A note re: evidence from IE comparanda PIE *nH > Sanskrit ā, Avestan ā, Latin nā, etc. but Greek nē/ā/ō (Beekes 2011: 151). Some of the relevant IE cognates are Greek γιγνώσκω, OPers. xšnāsāhiy, and Sanskrit jānā́ti; however, only PIE *nh3 > Greek nō. Weiss 2009/2011: PIE *R̥HiC > *RĒiC In Greek: *CR̥h3C > CRώC cf. PIE *ǵnh3-sk̂é- Greek ...


6

Latin American here. As mentioned in the other answers, the Americas were colonized basically by the British, Spanish, and Portuguese (and to a lesser extent by the French and Dutch). All the French colonies in North America later fell under British rule. Now, the term comes handy when referring to a clear cut subset of the Americas (the former Spanish and ...


6

"Words neuter in Latin become masculine in Spanish" This is generally correct! In Latin, the most common type of masculine noun and the most common type of neuter noun look almost identical. They're only distinguishable in the nominative singular and the nominative/accusative plural. In the branch of Romance that would eventually become Spanish, the ...


5

Since posting the question, I was able to consult Peter Schrijver's "The Reflexes of the Proto-Indo-European Laryngeals in Latin" (1991) (cited by de Vaan), which, along with Alex B.'s answer, has helped me to understand better the etymological arguments in favor of long ō in Latin nōscō. Like de Vaan 2008 and Beekes 2011 (cited in Alex B.'s answer), ...


5

Ricus and riccus show up in late Medieval and Humanist Latin, but they're certainly backports from French and Italian, not pre-Medieval loans. The various Romance cognates of rich are actually believed to represent three separate borrowings from three separate Germanic languages: Italian ricco is the most telling one, because it has a geminated consonant, ...


4

The construction at issue here seems to have its origin in Late Latin. According to Moignet (1973: 50), one has to consider Fr. ne que "come remontant au latin tardif non...quam, représentant non aliud quam influencé par non...nisi". It seems then that non quam is a crossing of these two constructions. Unfortunately, as acknowledged by this author, ...


4

A Latin form *volĕre would have been stressed on the first syllable. Italian volere is stressed on the penultimate syllable, like a Latin form *volēre. There could have been a Vulgar Latin form *volĕre that was later replaced with voˈl[e]re, but it seems more parsimonious to just give *volēre as the ancestor of the Italian and French forms. "The Destiny Of ...


4

Most of the time, deponent verbs in Latin come from the Indo-European middle voice, which had pretty much completely died out by Classical Latin times. But in other Indo-European languages, such as Ancient Greek and Hittite, the middle voice is well-attested: it's a third voice next to active and passive, which usually links the subject back to itself in ...


3

It could easily originally be a neuter plural: salata — "salted things".


3

I think poetry is the biggest data source indicating that hiatus was usual in Latin for i e u + vowel. In the stage of the language that was ancestral to the Romance languages, both i and e were reduced when unstressed to a glide [j] before a following vowel. However, the gliding process doesn’t seem to have worked quite the same as in modern Spanish/...


3

Welcome to the Latin SE! Latin was not just a language - it also referred to a specific group of people who lived on the Italic peninsula before the Roman Empire or Republic. After the rise of Rome, it also applied to the people who lived in Iberia (modern day Spain and Portugal). The name stuck there, and it traveled across the Atlantic and continued to ...


3

Not just the long vowel future—all Latin future-tense marking was lost in the Romance languages! A few different factors conspired to make the future tense no longer useful in Vulgar Latin: For an emphatic future meaning, Vulgar Latin used an infinitive plus a form of habeō: this is even found in Cicero for extra emphasis. b in between vowels and v ...


3

I cannot agree with your statement that “vowel length seems to have been lost very early” in Latin. Latin long and short vowels develop differently in the daughter languages. For example Latin short e becomes e in French, but long ē regularly becomes oi (as in habēre > avoir). It is probably true that the distinction was neutralised in the reading aloud of ...


3

I think you're mistaken when you say "certain sound changes in the Romance languages, like posttonic vowel syncope ..., still rely on the penult stress rules". There are two separate processes involved: the loss of phonemic vowel quantity, and the syncope based on accentuation patterns. Once vowel quantity ceases to be phonemic, the "penult rule" ceases to ...


2

Since the question's changed, here's an answer to the updated one… Yes, long vowels were lost very early in Vulgar Latin, in the first few centuries CE. Originally, Latin's long and short vowels (excluding ȳ, y, and æ, which don't fit into the 5+5 system) were identical in quality: the long and short version of each vowel were pronounced exactly the same, ...


2

The closest Latin equivalent seems to be: Non habeo plus quam unum amicum. What seems to have happened is that in Italian and French you can drop the plus. But you cannot drop the word in Spanish; you have to say yo no tengo más que un amigo. It is not a global Romance phenomenon, and need not go all the way to Latin. My guess is therefore that the ...


2

Researching on tony's answer, I searched for plus unum in Perseus. Here's what I found: etiam quia plus [p. 33] quam unum ex patriciis creari non licebat (Liv 39 32) / Only one consul could be a patrician (Roberts, 1912) nec umquam plus unum patiuntur melioremque pugna quaerunt (Sen. Cl. 1.19) / they never endure to have more than one king at a time, and ...


1

A debate, in comments (with Joonas) on the possible tautological use of "solum" = "only", when "unum" = "the one-and-only", already; and, points raised with Mitomino concerning the (i) inappropriate use of adverb "quam" = "than" (for comparing nouns in the same case); (ii) "plus" & &...


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