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12 votes
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How can I translate the names of the Proto-Indo-European gods and goddesses into Latin?

Latin words/names from the roots *dyḗws and *dʰéǵʰōm The usual form of the sky god's name in Latin was Iuppiter, or its variant Iūpiter, which pretty obviously goes back to *dyḗws ph₂tḗr. Specifically,...
Asteroides's user avatar
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10 votes
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Why does “inferus” have /f/ rather than /d/?

Weiss (Hist. Comp. Gramm. Lat. 75, note 26) says that "the first syllable of īnferus was identified with in- and the medial *dʰ was therefore given a pseudo-initial treatment". De Vaan (s.v.) agrees, ...
TKR's user avatar
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8 votes
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Was there ever dual conjugation in Latin?

PIE appears to have had dual verb forms, as can be seen from e.g. Greek ἐστόν "you two are", Sanskrit ithás "you two go", Gothic baírats "you two carry". (Anatolian, though, lacks dual forms, which ...
TKR's user avatar
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6 votes
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Does the Latin nosco come from Greek?

Latin nōscō and Greek gignōskō are cognates, but neither is directly derived from the other. They both come from the Proto-Indo-European root *ǵneh₃- "to know", plus the inchoative *-sḱ- marking the ...
Draconis's user avatar
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5 votes

When did Old Latin develop initial stress?

-very brief and disorganized notes (not a full answer), maybe someone else will be willing to write a more coherent answer- Weiss 2020: 527 "Primary stress on the initial syllable is inferred on ...
Alex B.'s user avatar
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5 votes
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How did "djēm" avoid palatalization?

Diem seems to be due not to borrowing, but to Lindeman's Law. This is a reconstructed rule of PIE whereby monosyllabic words beginning with a stop+sonorant cluster (CR-) could optionally insert the ...
TKR's user avatar
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