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12 votes
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Translation of “in” as “and”

The passage comes from Cic. Fam. 9.4, namely from a letter to Varro. Apparently others have translated as you would expect: If you have a garden in your library, everything will be complete (...
Rafael's user avatar
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10 votes
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Domino notus erat: Agent ablative without a preposition?

Domino is dative, not ablative. English has the same idiom: 'known to the master.'
cnread's user avatar
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10 votes
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"redire ad" or "redire in"

There's a difference between the two. Using ad properly would indicate that Medus wished to go up to but not necessarily into his native country. This is why it works with people: you go to people, ...
cmw's user avatar
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9 votes
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If a Latin sentence cannot end in a preposition, how would you say "I have never seen that before." in Latin?

In the English sentence "I have never seen that before" the last word is not a preposition but an adverb. Some English prepositions, like "before", can function as adverbs, but ...
Joonas Ilmavirta's user avatar
8 votes

Which senses does ob have in the following words?

You are mistaking stand-alone preposition ob (which would be used before nouns) with prefix ob- (which was used to derive new words, primarily verbs). Latin, Greek, German, Slavic languages widely use ...
Arfrever's user avatar
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8 votes
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How do you say "on" as in "The book is on the table."?

My first instinct was to use Liber in mēnsā est. In fact, there are several sentences of this exact form in Hans Ørberg's introductory Latin reader, Lingua Latina per se illustrata, capitulum quartum: ...
Asteroides's user avatar
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5 votes
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In "Ritchie's Fabulae Faciles", why is it "per totam insulam" and not "totam per insulam" or "per insulam totam"?

It is not a rule of Latin that a preposition must go directly before the noun it modifies, so there's no issue with placing a preposition before an adjective and then a noun. Preposition + Noun + ...
Asteroides's user avatar
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4 votes

What are the antonyms of ob and prae?

("born dual to each other" is strange phrasing. All these prepositions were inherited from Proto-Italic, which inherited them from Proto-Indo-European.) ante and prae, in their basic ...
Arfrever's user avatar
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4 votes

Odyssey A.65: how is περὶ used in περὶ νόον ἐστὶ βροτῶν, περὶ δ᾿ ἱρὰ θεοῖσιν // ἀθανάτοισιν ἔδωκε?

You're right to think of this not as a preposition, but I think the error is in translating as "more" instead of with a supreme sense. I would translate it thus: ὃς περὶ μὲν νόον ἐστὶ ...
cmw's user avatar
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4 votes

Domino notus erat: Agent ablative without a preposition?

A very similar question was raised and answered in this forum. As you can see, some people will tell you that domino is a "dative of agent" (see Section 375 of Allen & Greenough: "...
Mitomino's user avatar
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3 votes

Domino notus erat: Agent ablative without a preposition?

According to the Diccionari bàsic llatí–català edited by Enciclopèdia Catalana, notus can work as an adjective which, used with genitive or infinitive, means known to or famous to. So, as pointed out ...
Charo's user avatar
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3 votes

Libera te tutemet ex inferis vs. Libera temet [ipsum] ab inferis?

Yes, the most grammatically correct version of the phrase would probably be "Libera temet ab inferis." There are two reasons I suggest this: As already explained, the preposition ab makes ...
Anonymous's user avatar
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