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27

This means "illa" definitely doesn't refer to "dies". But it does! The word dies can be feminine, and it is here. The feminine gender is rarer but it is the typical choice for a special day like an appointment or a deadline. That's why it was chosen here. For details, see this question about gender variation in dies.


16

The verb Catullus uses is odisse, not odire (from which you would get an imperative odi). This verb only has forms in the perfect system but the meaning is that of the present system. That is, what is the present active indicative by meaning is odi, odisti, odit, odimus, odistis, oderunt — perfect active indicative forms. This is one of the defective verbs ...


13

Joonas's answer is entirely correct, but to give a slightly different explanation: Some verbs in Latin are defective. Some of their forms are outright missing, for no obvious reason. For example, the verb ait "say" is always cited in the third person singular present—because most of the other forms we'd cite don't exist! It has no first person ...


13

It is the feminine nominative and refers to dies. It means “that day.” You do not say why you think you can definitely rule it out, but I guess you think dies is masculine, which is indeed the case. But it is also often feminine. Generally speaking, it is feminine only when referring to a set day, an appointed time. This does arguably apply to the day of ...


5

Additionally, note that "irae" in "Dies irae" is in the genitive. "illa", in the nominative, can't match a noun in the genitive case. :)


4

This passage (Met. 1.61-2) is about the creation of the world, and the winds are taking up their allotted quarters. Eurus isn't blowing towards the East, he's taking up his station there to become the East Wind. (Btw subdita here isn't "submissive to", but simply "placed under".)


3

The morphological issues are explained already. In any case, I hope that a literal translation will help: "The day of wrath, that wellknown day" About the use of illa, in this context, I would say that it is used to indicate some well-known or celebrated object, equivalent to the ancient, the wellknown, the famous. You can find this use here: Lewis&...


3

I think both the literal reading "man and arms" and the more creative reading "armed man" are justified at superficial level. The second one does indeed look weird, but is based on a figure of speech called hendiadys. (There are slightly different forms of this concept. I learned to call it hendiadyoin.) The name of this figure of speech means "one through ...


2

Yes, that is absolutely correct! You have identified the long and short syllables correctly, and from that the scansion follows. To be sure, it is always good to check that the pattern fits the metre and there is a natural place for at least one caesura. Once these all check out, your scansion is usually right.


2

Yes! Nemo est qui... is a common enough formula in Latin, "there is no one who...". Since nemo can be used with est there is no reason it cannot be used with sum. Indeed the phrase nemo sum homo is attested. See here.


2

Elision in Latin is a complicated topic and I only know basic information about it. I think it is normal in any period to elide final -ae, as in meae, before a following vowel. András Cser ("Aspects of the Phonology and Morphology of Classical Latin", 2016) puts it like this: Word-final [aj] is elided in poetry just like any vowel (including the nasal ...


1

What if instead of ἀρμένα [armena], the restoration is ἠρμένη [ērmenē] > Perfect Participle Middle/Passive Feminine Nominative Singular of αἴρω (airō, “to carry”)? Then the translation would be "If my paps could still give suck and my womb were able to bear children . . ." My name is Allan Loder (PhD student at Wycliffe College, UofT). In ...


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