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Why is it πῶς and not ὅπως? (Greek)

πῶς is widely attested as an alternative for ὅπως in indirect interrogative clauses. Here are some examples of this use with the verb σκέπτομαι: Isocr. 1,35: σκόπει πρῶτον πῶς τὰ ἑαυτοῦ διῴκησεν ...
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Did Plato describe man as "a being in search of meaning"?

As is often the case with these quotes, it's actually a summary of a summary of Plato. We see an early version in Ernst Cassirer's 1944 essay An Essasy on Man: It is impossible—says Plato in the ...
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Who first associated μαντεία with μανία?

Yes, Plato makes this direct connection, and it does appear to be attested. He does this in the Phaedrus, 244b-c: τόδε μὴν ἄξιον ἐπιμαρτύρασθαι, ὅτι καὶ τῶν παλαιῶν οἱ τὰ ὀνόματα τιθέμενοι οὐκ ...
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Why does the verb πολυπραγμονεῖν use the noun stem and not the verb stem? (Greek)

The verb doesn't actually mean simply 'to do many things' – though that idea could conceivably be rendered by πολυπράττειν, if such a verb existed (it isn't attested in LSJ), or by πολλὰ πράττειν. ...
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Confused by two verbs which mean "to say" in Plato's Apology

The phrase ὡς ἔπος εἰπεῖν is an expression, meaning something like "so to say". So a very rough translation would be, "they have said (perfect tense) nothing truthful, so to say". Apparently, "they ...
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How to translate this phrase about forgetting oneself in Plato's Apology?

This is a bit of a convoluted sentence! The key is that the three genitives here have nothing to do with each other—one is a genitive of agent, one is a genitive of quantity a specific idiom, and one ...
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Why is a reflexive pronoun the subject of this genitive absolute? (Greek)

ἑαυτοῦ: this is reflexive because it's referring all the way back to the subject of the verb of speech that introduced this whole passage of indirect discourse. It's an "indirect reflexive": see the ...
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Do singular nouns connected by "and" require a plural verb? (Greek)

Your main question has been well answered by Penelope and in the article linked by brianpck: when there is a coordination of more than one subject, the verb can agree with the entire coordination or ...
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What is this participle λέγοντες doing? (Greek)

λέγοντες It makes sense to construe as one unit the following phrase: τοῦ γυναικείου πέρι νόμου λέγοντες [We who are] speaking about the law concerning women This is the subject of the ...
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Why is the relative pronoun put in the dative case? why feminine? (Greek)

This is an adverbial use of the relative and has its own entry in LSJ. It's used in comparative clauses, for example. LSJ: ᾗ, dat. sg. fem. of relat. Pron. ὅς, ἥ, ὅ, in adverb. sense ... II. of ...
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Do singular nouns connected by "and" require a plural verb? (Greek)

Apparently, two or more subjects can occur with a singular verb, with the verb understood to be agreeing with the nearest or most important subject (Smyth 963 & 966 (c)). Perhaps this is what ...
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How do you translate these verbal adjectives? (Greek)

As you say, one can explicate an implied agent from passive verbs based on context. The most literal (but probably unusable) translation would be "there is to be assigned". Usually the impersonal ...
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Confused by two verbs which mean "to say" in Plato's Apology

εἶπον is the suppletive aorist and εἴρηκα the suppletive perfect of φημί or λέγω. It is a question of definition whether you regard them as three separate verbs, or as different tenses of the same ...
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Was the Roman concept of "imperium" influenced by Plato?

Instead of answering your last and main question as stated, I will try to argue why it is not answerable. The reason is in the answer to the first question: the description is not accurate. The word ...
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